IBM 000-317 IBM WebSphere Application Server Network Deployment V8.0, Core Administration

IBM 000-317  Version: 4.0
PART: A
QUESTION NO: 1
A system administrator has successfully installed the WebSphere Application Server Network
Deployment core product. The administrator then attempts to start server1, and it fails to start.
On initial inspection, the administrator finds that the profiles directory is empty. What should the
administrator do next?
A. Start the node agent for server1.
B. Inspect the SystemOut.log file of server1.
C. Run the Installation Verification Tool (IVT).
D. Run the WebSphere Customization Toolbox.
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 2
A system administrator needs to create a new standalone WebSphere application server profile on
<machine_a>. All previous WebSphere installations have been on <machine_a>. What should the
administrator do to prevent a port conflict with this new server?
A. Execute the pmt script from a remote machine.
B. Execute the Profile Management Tool from <machine_a>
C. Edit the server.xml file on <machine_a> to change ports.
D. Look for running processes on <machine_a> using port 9080
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 3
A system administrator needs to install the IBM Installation Manager for WebSphere Application
Server Network Deployment V8.0 using a non-root account. What step must the administrator take
so that the installation can be managed by two different non-root user accounts? Install the IBM
Installation Manager:
A. in group mode.
B. in non-administrator mode.
C. using the configurator administrator role.
D. using a primary and secondary account.
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 4
A system administrator needs to submit a wsadmin job to change the configuration of an
enterprise application within a flexible management environment. What should the administrator
do? Connect to:
A. Node Agent
B. Administrative Agent
C. Job Manager
D. Work Manager
E. Deployment Manager
Answer: C,E
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 5
A remote host machine has been registered to a job manager as a target, and the IBM Installation
Manager has been installed on the host. How can an administrator install WebSphere Application
Server Network Deployment V8.0 on the remote host?
A. Use the job manager to schedule a "Manage offerings" job.
B. Schedule a "Distribute file" job to push the installation response file to the remote host.
C. Schedule a "Start application" job to launch the IBM Installation Manager on the remote host.
D. Use the Installation Factory to create a Centralized Installation Manager (CIM) repository on the
remote host.
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 6
A system administrator has completed a WebSphere installation using the IBM Installation
Manager. Which tool, using the default settings, can the administrator use to generate an HTML
file verifying the version of WebSphere installed? Execute the:
A. postinstall command.
B. versionInfo command.
C. genVersionReport command.
D. Installation Verification Tool (IVT).
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 7
A system administrator needs to install the IBM Installation Manager (IIM) using non-graphical
interactive mode. To perform this operation, what should the administrator run?
A. imcl -c
B. imcl -s
C. imcl -install
D. imcl -updateAll
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 8
Web clients are seeing error messages when they try to access a Java EE application. In order to
isolate the system component that may be causing the problem, the administrator decides to verify
the request flow from a web browser. In what order should the components be examined?
A. Web server, embedded HTTP server, web services engine
B. Web server, HTTP plug-in, embedded HTTP server, web container
C. Embedded HTTP server, web services engine, web container
D. Load balancer, web server, name server, embedded HTTP server, web container
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 9
A system administrator configures the intelligent runtime provisioning feature included with
WebSphere Application Server Network Deployment V8.0. The default WebSphere settings are inplace. At what level will the administrator enable runtime provisioning?
A. node agent
B. web container
C. application server
D. deployment manager
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 10
A system administrator is creating a new WebSphere cell consisting of three dedicated machines:
?web server ?deployment manager ?application server node To provide process level failover, the
administrator should create a cluster with:
A. no scaling
B. vertical scaling
C. horizontal scaling
D. horizontal and vertical scaling
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 11
A mixed version and flexible management topology is required for a new application. For ease of
administration, the system administrator needs to register a WebSphere V7.0 stand-alone node
with a WebSphere V8.0 job manager. What must the administrator do before registering with the
job manager?
A. federate the V7.0 stand-alone node with a V7.0 node agent
B. federate the V7.0 stand-alone node with a V8.0 node agent
C. register the V7.0 stand-alone node with a V7.0 administrative agent
D. register the V7.0 stand-alone node with a V8.0 administrative agent
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 12
Several unmanaged application server profiles (nodes) are hosted on the same machine. The
administrator needs to add these nodes to a flexible management topology. Which command
should the administrator execute?
A. registerNode -profilePath
B. manageProfiles -augment
C. managesdk -enableProfile
D. addNode -asExistingNode
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 13
A system administrator has made changes at the cell scope in the Integrated Solutions Console
(ISC) of the deployment manager and needs to trace the propagation of the configuration change.
Where should the administrator expect these changes to be persisted?
A. master repository, node repository
B. master repository, node agent, node repository
C. deployment manager, node agent, server repository
D. deployment manager, node agent, configuration database
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 14
A system administrator needs to use wsadmin to execute commands interactively. The
WebSphere cell has global security enabled. To avoid the security login dialog when executing
wsadmin, the administrator should:
A. edit the sas.client.props file.
B. edit the wsadmin.properties file.
C. use the argument -user <current_user>.
D. login in to the local operating system (local OS) with an administrator user id.
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 15
A system administrator needs to install WebSphere Application Server binaries on a remote host.
The administrator will use the Centralized Installation Manager (CIM) of a Deployment Manager.
How should the administrator do this? To install the binaries executing a CIM job, the administrator
should:
A. install Job Manager and register it to the deployment manager.
B. install an administrative agent and federate it to the deployment manager.
C. register the target host to the Job Manager server of the deployment manager.
D. transfer a IBM Installation Manager (IIM) kit to the target host and register it with the
deployment manager.
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 16
A system administrator has made an unintended configuration change in the Integrated Solutions
Console (ISC). Before committing the changes, the administrator was logged-out due to the
timeout restriction. After logging back in, how can the administrator discard the uncommitted
changes made in the previous session?
A. Click the "Review" link on the Messages area.
B. Click the "Discard" button on the Save window.
C. Select the "Work with the master configuration" choice.
D. Choose the "Recover changes made in the prior session" option.
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 17
A system administrator needs to configure a WebSphere Application Server runtime through a
properties file. The administrator needs to verify that the properties file is correct and can be
applied. How should the administrator do this?
A. Using the applyConfigProperties command with the -validate option.
B. Using the validateConfigProperties command with the -validate option.
C. Using the applyConfigProperties command; the verification is done automatically during
application of the configuration properties.
D. Using Integration Solution Console's Configuration problems panel with Maximum: Validate all
documents set.
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 18
A system administrator is using the debug features of the IBM Assembly and Deploy Tools (IADT)
to resolve an error in a wsadmin Jython script. Which control on the Debug view can the
administrator use to progress through the statements without redirecting to any encountered
functions?
A. Resume
B. Step Into
C. Step Over
D. Step Return
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 19
A system administrator notices that a new cluster member is running but not receiving HTTP
requests. Which script from the command line should the administrator execute for the new cluster
member to receive HTTP requests?
A. pmt
B. startManager
C. GenPluginCfg
D. wsadmin -f startApplicationOnCluster
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 20
A system administrator needs to customize an EAR application before deploying it using the
monitored directory deployment feature. How should the system administrator do this?
A. Create a properties file and include it in the EAR's META-INF directory.
B. Create a properties file and copy it to the deploymentProperties directory.
C. Create a properties file and include it in the EAR's deploymentProperties directory.
D. Create a wsadmin script (with AdminTask.applyConfigProperties) and copy it to the
deploymentProperties directory.
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 21
The system administrator needs to generate a report of data sources for a WebSphere cell. To do
so, the administrator should:
A. parse the genVersionReport to list data sources.
B. configure a monitored directory to capture this data.
C. create a script by using the JDBC query scripts as examples.
D. use the Integrated Solutions Console (ISC) to generate a data source report.
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 22
A system administrator needs to add a business capability to an enterprise application (EAR). The
capability is an OSGi bundle distributed as a separate Java archive (JAR) by a third-party
application provider. How should the administrator do this?
A. Deploy EAR and define the JAR as a shared library reference.
B. Include JAR in EAR's lib directory and deploy the modified EAR.
C. Create a business-level application (BLA) with the EAR and the JAR.
D. Modify the EAR deployment descriptor's library-directory to include the directory with the JAR.
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 23
A system administrator needs to remove all of the application scoped resources from an EAR file.
Before installing this application, the administrator should:
A. set the metadata-complete flag to true.
B. remove all of the com.ibm* classes.
C. remove the WEB-INF/ibmconfig folder and all its contents.
D. remove the META-INF/ibmconfig folder and all its contents.
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 24
A system administrator needs to modify the context root of a web application. The Web Context
root can be changed using the IBM Assembly and Deploy Tools (IADT) by editing:
A. web.xml file
B. Web project settings
C. web deployment descriptor
D. Enterprise Application project settings
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 25
A system administrator needs to automate management of applications deployed onto IBM
WebSphere Application Server Network Deployment V8.0 using scripting. Which administrative
objects should the system administrator use?
A. AdminApp
B. AdminApplication
C. AdminTask
D. AdminConfig
E. AdminControl
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 26
A system administrator needs to create a resource that can be used exclusively by applications
running on a specific node. What configuration setting can be used to limit the visibility of this
resource to users on that node?
A. scope
B. JNDI name
C. node group
D. authorization group
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 27
A system administrator needs to install an enhanced EAR file using the Integrated Solutions
Console (ISC). Which option must the administrator select to use the application-scoped
resources?
A. Deploy application resources
B. Create MBeans for resources
C. Process embedded configuration
D. Precompile JavaServer Pages files
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 28
A system administrator needs to retrieve information pertaining to the application 'appname' using
the scripting capabilities of WebSphere Application Server Network Deployment V8.0. What
wsadmin command should the administrator execute?
A. AdminApp.list('appname')
B. AdminApp.view('appname')
C. AdminApp.export('appname')
D. AdminApp.options('appname')
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 29
A system administrator installs an application that contains a module with JDBC resource
references. The administrator should bind the resource references to:
A. JDBC providers.
B. Connection factories.
C. J2C authentication data.
D. JNDI Name of the resources.
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 30
A system administrator needs to connect to a database from an enterprise application where
global security is enabled. What security object should the administrator use?
A. Security certificate
B. J2C authentication alias
C. Basic authentication token
D. Local operating system (local OS) user id
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 31
A system administrator needs to configure a new way to manage applications using the monitored
directory deployment feature. How can the administrator enable it? The feature...
A. can only be enabled in the Integrated Solutions Console (ISC).
B. can be enabled using the Integrated Solutions Console (ISC) or wsadmin.
C. is only available for a stand-alone server profile and is enabled by default.
D. is enabled by default for both a stand-alone and network deployment editions.
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 32
A system administrator needs to increase messaging throughput across multiple servers. What
should the administrator do?
A. Enable protocol transformation between buses.
B. Add a cluster to the bus and create multiple messaging engines.
C. Use a proxy server to route messages to multiple messaging engines.
D. Create a mediation to manage the messaging work load across servers.
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 33
A cluster is a member of a service integration bus (SIBus) and is configured with the high
availability messaging engine policy. How should a system administrator configure JMS
messaging so that message-driven beans (MDBs) on all cluster members can get messages?
A. Enable the JMS activation specification option: Always activate MDBs in all servers.
B. Enable the JMS destination option: Do not prefer a local queue point over other queue points.
C. Set the scope of all JMS destinations to the cluster that is a member of the SIBus.
D. Set the scope of the JMS connection factory to the cluster that is a member of the SIBus.
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 34
An application is deployed to a WebSphere Application Server ND V8.0 cluster consisting of four
cluster members. Assuming the cluster is stopped, what should a system administrator do to
delete the cluster?
A. Delete the cluster.
B. Remove the cluster members and delete the cluster.
C. Uninstall the application and delete the cluster.
D. Uninstall the application, remove the cluster members and delete the cluster.
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 35
Management is concerned about secure communication when using WebSphere Proxy Server.
How can the system administrator provide additional security to the base proxy configuration?
A. Disable File Transfer Protocol (FTP).
B. Enable proxy authentication and authorization.
C. Implement Secure Shell (SSH) communication.
D. Configure Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) transport.
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 36
A system administrator needs to modify the plug-in configuration file. Which utility should the
administrator use?
A. GenPluginCfg script
B. IBM Installation Manager
C. WebSphere Customization Toolbox (WCT)
D. Embedded WebSphere Customization Toolbox (WCT)
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 37
A Java EE application is deployed to a horizontal cluster and makes use of HTTP session objects.
The administrator is required to ensure failover of these session objects, and chooses to
implement memory-to-memory replication. To maximize chances of successful failover, how
should the administrator configure the replication?
A. Select Entire domain for the number of replicas.
B. Select Single replica and select the default tuning parameter.
C. Select Single replica and select "Very high" for the tuning parameter.
D. Specify at least 3 replicas and select "Very high" for the tuning parameter.
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 38
An application developer needs to know the SOAP_CONNECTOR_ADDRESS for their
development application server. The Integrated Solutions Console (ISC) is unavailable because
the Deployment Manager server is down for maintenance. How can the system administrator
determine the proper port number for the developer? Search for
SOAP_CONNECTOR_ADDRESS in the:
A. server.xml
B. serverindex.xml
C. resources.xml
D. virtualhosts.xml
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 39
Consider the Exhibit,
a report generated by the IBM Support Assistant (ISA) that reveals a prevailing problem within a
WebSphere Application Server environment. What should the administrator do?
A. Increase the amount of physical memory for the server.
B. Ensure that all connections taken from the data source are returned to the pool.
C. Determine why the collection class increases in size and consumes memory.
D. Modify the application so it uses stateless instead of stateful session beans to conserve the
heap.
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 40
A system administrator has enabled the HPEL mode on an application server, but has disabled
the HPEL text log to improve performance. How can the administrator view only the messages
that were streamed to System.out and System.err by a single server thread?
A. Use a text editor to open a log file in the server's logdata directory, and search for the thread
ID.
B. Use the Log Analyzer to import the SystemOut.log file for the server and search on the thread
ID.
C. Use the Integration Solutions Console (ISC) Log Viewer to select a thread and then click the
"Show Only Selected Threads" button.
D. Use the Integration Solutions Console (ISC) Log Viewer's filtering section to search for the
string "Thread ID*" in the message content field.
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 41
A WebSphere Application Server has been set up to receive requests from an IBM HTTP Server
(IHS). A system administrator has been asked to examine the environment for problems (if any)
and has been given several log files to check. This is an excerpt from the IHS's access.log:
<host_ip> - - [26/Jan/2012:14:17:19 +0800] "GET /Login.jsp HTTP/1.1" 500 620 What should the
administrator do next?
A. No action needed. The access.log does not indicate any problems.
B. Determine what could be causing the HTTP status code 620.
C. Verify Login.jsp can be found in the document root directory of the IHS.
D. Check the server's SystemOut.log file to see what errors occurred around the same time.
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 42
Customers are complaining that a particular web site is "hanging". To troubleshoot the problem, a
system administrator decides to trigger several thread dumps to determine which threads might be
hung. How can the administrator trigger the thread dumps?
A. Use wsadmin to execute the dumpThreads command for the application server.
B. Run the collector command line script with the -Summary option set to "yes".
C. Set the node agent's custom property "com.ibm.websphere.threadmonitor.dump.java" to true.
D. From the Integrated Solutions Console (ISC), click the System dump button for the application
server.
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 43
An application server needs to be diagnosed for out-of-memory issues. The system administrator
will use a tool that performs the analysis of the heap dump. Which tool should the administrator
use?
A. IBM Support Assistant (ISA)
B. IBM Solutions Console (ISC)
C. IBM Assembly and Deploy Tools (IADT)
D. Tivoli Performance Viewer (TPV)
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 44
Performance issues have caused several high profile outages in a WebSphere Application Server
Network Deployment V8.0 environment. The application developer has isolated the problem to
one specific application. To assist with the problem diagnosis a system administrator has been
asked to enable the highest level of WebSphere tracing available. How should the system
administrator accomplish this? Enable tracing and set the level to:
A. *
B. all
C. finest
D. debug
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 45
A system administrator needs to monitor a transaction and determine how much time it spends in
the web container, EJB container, and backend database. Which tool should the administrator use
to gather response times for each component?
A. Request metrics
B. Performance servlet
C. Thread Pool Summary Report
D. Runtime Performance and Diagnostic Advisor
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 46
An administrator needs to monitor the frequency of garbage collection (GC) cycles that are
triggered when a typical client load is run against the server. How should the administrator monitor
the frequency of garbage collections?
A. Use the Log Analyzer to view the verbose GC logs.
B. Use the HPEL Log Viewer and look for System.gc() calls.
C. Use the Tivoli Performance Viewer (TPV) and select the JVM Runtime.
D. Run the performance servlet to gather the verbose GC data.
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 47
A system administrator needs to improve performance of a WebSphere Application Server
runtime. The computations of JavaServer Pages (JSP), servlets, portlets, Web services and
WebSphere commands should be performed once and served from memory. What should the
administrator configure?
A. Caching Proxy
B. Edge Components
C. Dynamic cache service
D. WebSphere eXtreme Scale
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 48
A system administrator is tuning a WebSphere Application Server system for optimal performance,
based on advice obtained from the Performance and Diagnostic advisor. What setting should the
administrator configure to ensure accurate advice for the specific configuration of the system?
A. Specify the process ID of the server
B. Specify the number of processors on the server
C. Enable tracing on the server
D. Enable High Performance Extensible Logging (HPEL) logging
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 49
While monitoring a JDBC data source's performance during a test load, a system administrator
notices that there are a large number of prepared statements discarded from the cache. In order to
improve application throughput, how should the administrator tune the data source?
A. Increase the size of the prepared statement cache until there are no statement discards under
load.
B. Increase the maximum connection pool size and keep the prepared statement cache at its
default size.
C. Set the connection pool purge policy to "EntirePool" and increase the maximum connection
pool size.
D. Set the minimum connection pool size equal to the maximum connection pool size and keep
the prepared statement cache at its default size.
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 50
A system administrator needs to identify the performance of a database application and JDBC
connection pool, CPU usage time and response time. Which tools should the administrator use to
get this data?
A. Client program
B. Request metrics
C. Custom Java code
D. Heap dump analyzer
E. Performance Monitoring Infrastructure (PMI)
Answer: B,E
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 51
A system administrator needs to identify the most time-intensive web components of a running
application, and determine which components are the slowest. The administrator does this from
the Tivoli Performance Viewer (TPV) by:
A. viewing diagnostic trace output.
B. viewing Servlets Summary Report.
C. viewing the log file for the web server.
D. opening Reports tab, Runtime operations, reports.
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 52
An application server is configured with the default garbage collection (GC) policy. An
administrator needs to load test different GC policies. How can the administrator change the
server's GC policy?
A. Start the node agent from the command line using the -Xgcpolicy option, and specify the server
name.
B. Start the administrative agent from the command line using the -Xgcpolicy option and specify
the server name.
C. Use Integrated Solutions Console (ISC) to navigate to the server's JVM configuration and add
an appropriate -Xgcpolicy setting.
D. Use Integrated Solutions Console (ISC) to navigate to the deployment manager's JVM
configuration and add an appropriate -Xgcpolicy setting.
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 53
A system administrator needs to modify the Java 2 security permissions for applications running
on a server. How should the administrator perform this task?
A. Use the PolicyTool.
B. Use the iKeyman tool.
C. Edit the was.policy file.
D. Edit the security.xml file.
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 54
The lead administrator needs to limit access to the Integrated Solutions Console (ISC) by a group
of administrators who only need to: ?view the configuration of the WebSphere Application Server.
?monitor its status. ?stop and start the server. To what administrative role should the lead
administrator assign this group?
A. Auditor
B. Monitor
C. Operator
D. Configurator
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 55
A system administrator needs to enable Single Sign On (SSO) using LTPA between WebSphere
cells. What must the administrator do to accomplish this?
A. Configure both cells to share LDAP keys.
B. Configure both cells to use the same user registry.
C. Ensure URL requests use only host names or IP addresses.
D. Ensure each cell is in a unique Domain Name System (DNS).
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 56
A system administrator needs to enable security auditing. What additional configuration steps are
required before auditing becomes effective?
A. Configure the types of events that are recorded.
B. Configure the types of events that are recorded, and configure failure notifications.
C. Create a set of users or groups mapped to the Admin Security Manager role.
D. Create a set of users or groups mapped to the Auditor role, and define the notification
mechanism.
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 57
A system administrator must deploy a new application that uses Java 2 security. There are several
applications installed in the cell that use application security but not Java 2 security. How can the
administrator enable support for Java 2 security without affecting the other applications?
A. Enable Java 2 security at the cell level and grant permissions only to the new application.
B. Configure a security domain with Java 2 security enabled for the application server that will host
the new application.
C. Configure a security domain for the other applications in the cell with both Java 2 security
enabled and application security.
D. Disable global security and configure a security domain with Java 2 security enabled for the
application server that will host the new application.
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 58
In a network deployment cell, web users are prompted several times to authenticate. What should
the administrator do so that the users only need to authenticate once during a session?
A. Configure an authentication proxy server in the DMZ.
B. Enable the "Set security cookies to HTTPOnly" property for the global single sign-on
configuration.
C. Enable single sign-on for the global security configuration and provide the necessary DNS
domain names.
D. Increase the default LTPA timeout and the cache timeout values for forwarded credentials
between servers.
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 59
A system administrator creates a profile and selects the option to allow WebSphere Application
Server to create the default certificate. After the certificate is created, what attributes can the
administrator customize, if needed?
A. location and lifespan of the certificate
B. location, type, and password of the keystore
C. Distinguished name (DN) and lifespan of the certificate
D. Distinguished name (DN) and password of the keystore
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 60
A system administrator must configure IBM WebSphere Application Server Network Deployment
V8.0 to authenticate users with a Windows domain. The administrator should configure a registry
that is:
A. a local operating system (OS).
B. a Virtual Member Manager (VMM).
C. a registry that implements WebSphere Common Configuration Model (WCCM).
D. an Active Directory (AD) domain controller.
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 61
A system administrator needs to backup a WebSphere Application Server profile without
disrupting normal operations.
How can the administrator accomplish this?
A. Execute backupConfig.sh -nostop -profileName <profile>
B. Execute prnt.sh -nostop -backupProfile -profileName <profile>
C. Execute rnanageprofiles.sh -nostop -backupProfile -profileName <profile>
D. Use the administrative agent to configure a backup job without stopping the server.
Answer: A

PART B:
***************************************************************************************************************
QUESTION NO: 1
An administrator would like to use the Centralized Installation Manager (CIM) to install WebSphere
Application
Server Network Deployment V7.0 on a remote Solaris host. The Solaris host has been updated
with all the required operating system patches.
What is the next step the administrator must perform?
A. Configure an installation target for the Solaris host.
B. Download Solaris interim fixes to the CIM repository.
C. Use the Job manager to create a remote installation job.
D. CopyWebSphere Application Sewer Network Deployment V7.0 software to the Solaris host.
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 2
Which one of the following profile related tasks can only be performed using the manage profiles
command line facility?
A. Delete a profile
B. Secure a profile
C. Federate a profile
D. Update profile templates
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 3
Which of the following items best gives a reason to perform an unattended installation of
WebSphere Application Server?
A. The installation for the particular target platform is being done for the first time.
B. The installation for the particular target platform has been done before and will be repeated in
the future.
C. The installation forWebSphere Application Sewer would initially not be able to include
administrative security.
D. The installation for the particular target platform is expected to require a lot of adjustments to be
done over several installation attempts.
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 4
A system administrator has successfully installed WebSphere Application Server V7.0 and has run
the Installation Verification Tool (IVT) with a success message. Which additional step can be taken
to further verify the installation?
A. Check to see if theInstallShield application will run again.
B. Check to see if the installation directory specified exists in the file system.
C. Use a browser to access the launch page of the IBM HTTP Server.
D. Use a browser to access the administrative console and log in successfully.
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 5
A WebSphere Application Server installation finishes and the primary installation log indicates an
exit code of INSTCONFSUCCESS. What is the best conclusion that can be resolved from this
result?
A. The Web server installed successfully.
B. The WebSphere Application Server installed successfully.
C. The InstallShield Wizard executed successfully to launch WebSphere Application Server
installation.
D. The target operating system determined that it is compatible withWebSphere Application Server
and had configured environment variables for it.
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 6
In order to verify that a server has started successfully and all of its components have initialized
without throwing any exceptions, what steps should an administrator perform?
A. Use the Log Analyzer to view theservers activity.log file.
B. View theservers startServer.log and native_stdout.log files.
C. Examine the SystemOut.log file for the current server process.
D. Log in to the administrative console and examine the runtime messages.
Answer: C
A stand-alone application server with hostname HOST and port 1234 is running a Web application
which is trying to access EJBs hosted on a cluster. The Web application is throwing a
NameNotFoundException when attempting to lookup clusters/cluster01/ejbs/MyHome. The
administrator runs the dumpNameSpace command on the standalone server and gets the
following output:
Linked to URL Corbaloc::bptenote35:2833,BPTENOTE35:2831/NameServiceServerRoot What
command should the admin run next to find the MyHome entry?
A. dumpNameSpace host bptenote35 port 2833
B. dumpNameSpace startAt clusters/cluster01/ejbs
C. dumpNameSpace root cluter01
D. dumpNameSpace root ejbs
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 8
Which statement describes WebSphere V7 FFDC feature?
A. The application server needs to be restarted after enabling FFDC
B. FFDC information is stored in an optimized relational database
C. FFDC logs are mainly intended for application development teams
D. FFDC does not affect the performance of theWebSphere Application Server
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 9
An application server is hung and has to be killed and restarted by the administrator. In order to
troubleshoot the server hang problem, the administrator decides to reproduce the hang condition
and trigger thread dumps for further analysis. What is the most effective way to collect the thread
dump data?
A. Trigger one thread dump before and one thread dump after the server restart.
B. Take three consecutive thread dumps 10 seconds apart immediately after the server restart.
C. After server restart wait for the thread monitor to create the first thread dump, then take two
more.
D. Wait for the thread monitor to signal a possible hung thread,then take three thread dumps
several seconds apart.
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 10
Data replication service (DRS) is turned on for replicating in-memory data among WebSphere
processes.
During peak load, the developer found an OutOfMemoryError in the log. The developer suggests
turning off data replication service (DRS).
What services would be impacted?
A. Stateful session EJB persistence and failover.
B. HTTP session persistence and failover.
C. JDBC data source failover.
D. Dynamic cache replication.
E. JVM in memory replication and failover.
Answer: A,B,D
QUESTION NO: 11
An administrator has been asked by IBM Support to gather diagnostic trace data relevant to a
problem involving some components of the application server. How should the administrator
prepare to gather the data?
A. Enable the IBM Service log for the server and set the number of historical logs to 10.
B. Enable verbose garbage collection for the server and specify that the data be written to the
trace.log file.
C. Configure Diagnostic Trace for the server by selecting that the trace outputbe written to a file.
D. Configure theffdcRun.properties file to trace the specific server components and write the data
to a memory buffer.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 12
Due to network problems, the IBM Support Assistant (ISA) Agent is not available. Which service
will be inoperable?
A. Case manager tool
B. Guided troubleshooter
C. Remote debugging, data collection and file transfer
D. WebSphere Application Server Network Deployment V7.0 add-on Customization
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 13
An administrator has enabled security auditing for the WebSphere Application Server. They wish
to view the audit records in order to verify that it is working properly. Which tool would best allow
them to view the audit data?
A. IBM Support Assistant using theAuditLogReporter tool
B. wsadmin, using the AdminTask.binaryAuditLogReader command
C. The administrative console - they could invoke the Tivoli Audit Viewer (TAV)
D. TheLogAna|yzer from within the Rational Application Developer Assembly and Deploy Tool.
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 14
An administrator manages a cell that is configured to use an LDAP sewer for its user registry. But,
there are several cases where he needs certain application servers to authenticate against a file
based registry. How can this be accomplished?
A. From the deploymentmanagers administrative console, use the application servers security
configuration wizard for each application server to override the cell level registry.
B. In the cell level security configuration panel, define LDAP authentication at the cell scope, and
file based registry at the application server scope for the desired application servers.
C. Configure Global security to use an LDAP registry and create a new security domain with a
user realm definition for the file based registry and assign it to the desired application servers.
D. Create a global security repertoire that includes a global definition for the LDAP registry as well
as entries for each node is the cell. For those nodes that have application servers that require file
based registry, include a registry override.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 15
What must an administrator do before he can create method permissions for an Enterprise
JavaBean (EIB)?
A. Map role to groups.
B. Define one or more security roles.
C. Map logical role name to runtime rule.
D. Exclude a set of EIB methods from access.
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 16
A federated cell has two nodes, Node01 and NodeO2. Global Security is turned on and is using a
file based user registry. Node01 has servers A, B, C and D. A developer has deployed a new
security check-in application to servers A and D. As a security requirement, this new application is
required to use local operating system registry for user authentications. Identify which one of the
following is the most direct way to enable this secured application.
A. Migrate user information from operating system registry to LDAP registry.
B. Create a security domain and scope it to application server A and D.
C. Update global security configuration file security.xml with operating system registry definition.
D. Merge operating system registry and file based user registry to a new LDAP and assign the
new LDAP to the federated cell.
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 17
In a test cell which has WebSphere global security disabled, an administrator has created a
service integration bus (SIBus) with security enabled for testing applications that use messaging
resources. Now the administrator needs to enable security on the bus for further testing. Which of
the following tasks must be performed to enable security on the bus?
A. Enable administrative security for the cell.
B. Configure a separate security domain for the bus.
C. Delete the bus and recreate it with security enabled.
D. Require messaging clients to use SSL protected transpor1s.
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 18
The application accesses an external resource using a J2C adaptor. The security credential for the
external resource authentication has changed. Which one of the following should be updated?
A. J2C authentication data.
B. Key stores and certificates.
C. Web security trust association.
D. JAAS login module inWebSphere.
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 19
An administrator is troubleshooting a communication problem between two application sewers, on
different nodes (node-A and node-B), within a cell that has administrative security enabled. Based
on prior investigation, they believe that the problem involves a missing signing certificate on node-
B. What should be done to verify this theory?
A. Manually propagate the key.p12 file for node-B to theplugin directory and restart the application
servers.
B. Verify that theCellDefaultTrustStore has the appropriate signing certificates in it and run the
syncNode script on node-B.
C. Get a new certificate for the application server from a Certificate Authority and import it into the
application serversServerDefaultTrustStore.
D. Update theNodeDefaultkeyStore for node-B with a new signing certificate, do a Full
Resynchronize of the cell, and restart the node agents and application servers.
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 20
An administrator needs to set up a new employee with administrative access to an existing
WebSphere cell.
What administrative security roles must the administrator have in order to grant the new employee
operator access'?
A. The operator role is required to assign another administrator operator access.
B. The administrator must have administrator role access in order to make the new administrator
an operator.
C. The administrator must be the primary administrative user in order to grant security roles to new
administrators.
D. The Admin Security Manager role is required so that the administrator can assign new users to
administrative roles.
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 21
A company maintains several different LDAP directory servers to contain a registry of user IDs and
passwords.
How can an administrator make all of the user IDs and passwords in these directories available to
WebSphere security?
A. Configure the LDAP directory servers as generic servers.
B. Configure a federatedrepositow including all of the LDAP directory servers.
C. ConfigureWebSphere security to authenticate against all of the LDAP servers
D. Configure a standalone LDAP registry for each directory server and enable multiple realms.
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 22
In addition to the normal process for assembling an application, which one of the following tasks
must be performed if the EAR file contains a Web services-enabled module?
A. Generate EJB resource mappings.
B. Generate deployment code for the application.
C. Redefine thebindings properties.
D Edit the annotations or deployment descriptors.
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 23
It is determined that a single class loader is needed for all of the modules in all of the enterprise
applications on an application server. What action should the administrator take to implement this?
A. Set theClassloader policy on the application server to single
B. Set theClassloader policy on the application server to Use an isolated class loader
C. Set each applications EAR class loader policy to Single class loader for application
D. Set each applications WAR class loader policy to Single class loader for application
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 24
Which action below must be performed to ensure that requests routed through the Web server can
reach a Web application deployed in WebSphere Application Server Network Deployment V7.0?
A. Security is enabled on the administrative console.
B. An updated plugin-cfg.xml is generated and propagated to the Web server.
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C. The Web server and the WebSphere Application Server must be installed on the same physical
sewer.
D. The Web server plug-in and the WebSphere Application Server must be installed on the same
physical server.
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 25
What is the correct console command to execute a wsadmin script file in WebSphere Application
Sewer, ND, V7.O?
A. wsadmin -f <script_file>
B. wsadmin <script_file>
C. wsadmin /file: <script_fi|e>
D. wsadmin @executeScript (script file will be prompted)
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 26
To use a messagerdriven bean (MDB) to communicate with the default messaging provider, the
administrator must create which one of the following?
A. JDBC provider
B. JCA resource adapter
C. JMS connection factory
D. JMS activation specification
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 27
In a Java EE application, how are EIB resources protected?
A. Security constraints
B. Method permissions
C. Java 2 security policy files
D. Administrative permissions
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 28
An application which uses JMS clients will be deployed to a stand--alone application server.
Messages will be produced by a session EJB and consumed by a message-driven bean (MDB)
via a queue destination. What
JMS resources must be configured by an administrator to support this application?
A. Destination, queue point, mediation
B. Destination, connection factory, data store
C. Message points, destination, connection factory
D. Queue, connection factory, activation specification
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 29
Applications that need to create additional persistent bindings of objects associated with a specific
node can bind those objects under which of the following types of namespace partition?
A. Server roots
B. Cell persistent
C. Node persistent
D. System namespace
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 30
Which one of the following statements is true about scoping resources in WebSphere Application
Server?
A. When a resource is defined at a more general scope, greater isolation is provided.
B. In the administrative console,All scopes can be selected to create a new resource.
C. Resources that are defined at more specific scopes override duplicate resources that are
defined at more general scopes.
D. Resources such as Java Database Connectivity (JDBC) providers, namespace bindings, or
shared libraries can only be defined at a single scope.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 31
A developer informs an administrator that a servlet in one of the Web modules of a new enterprise
application needs to access code in a native library. The administrator creates a shared library and
adds the native library to its Native library path. What else does the administrator need to do to
ensure that the servlet can access the native library without risk of an UnsatisfiedLinkError? Using
the administrative console, select:
A. Use an isolated class loader for this shared library on the shared library settings page and
associate the shared library with the Web modules class loader.
B. Classes loaded with parent class loader first on the settings page for the enterprise applications
class loader and associate the shared library with the enterprise applications class loader.
C. Use an isolated class loader for this shared library on the shared library settings page and
inform the developer of the name of the shared library so the developer can include it in the
appropriate Java code.
D. Classes loaded with local class loader first on the settings page for the Web modules class
loader and associate the shared library with the Web modules class loader.
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 32
When an administrator creates a service integration bus (SIBus) destination, which one of the
following tasks must be performed?
A. Scope the bus destination to a specific cluster.
B. Assign the destination to a specific bus member.
C. Select an appropriate mediation for the bus destination.
D. Create the appropriate message point for the bus destination.
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 33
If a deployed application is mapped to a Web server, an updated plug-in configuration file must be
generated and propagated. By viewing the plug-in configuration file, how can an administrator
determine if the mapping was successful? There will be a:
A. Property element under Transport with a Name attribute equal to the path of the mapped
application.
B. URI element underUriGroup With a Name attribute equal to the context root of the mapped
application.
C Server element under ServerCluster with a Name attribute equal to the .ear file of the mapped
application.
D VirtualHost element under VirtualHostGroup with a Name attribute equal to the assigned port
number of the mapped application.
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 34
When adding a new member to a cluster, why is it necessary for an administrator to select the
option for generating unique HTTP ports?
A. To enable encryption over the secure HTTP ports
B. To prevent other applications from using these ports
C. To avoid port conflicts with other servers on the same node
D. To ensure that cluster members on different hosts have unique ports
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 35
Aside from the administrative console and the addNode command, what other facilities does
WebSphere Application Server provide for federating nodes into cells?
A. wsadmin
B. The administrative agent
C. The Profile Management Tool (PMT)
D. Rational Application Developer Assembly and Deploy Module
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 36
A cluster, Cluster1, is a member of the service integration bus (SIBus) Bus1 and the host of a
queue destination Destination1. When Clusterl was added to Busl, the High availability messaging
engine policy was selected. An administrator will deploy an application containing an MDB, MDB1,
onto Cluster1. The MDB will listen to Destination1. In order to allow MDB1 instances on all cluster
members to get messages from Destination1, the administrator should:
A. enable the optionAlways activate MDBs in all servers on MDB1s activation specification
B. set the option MDB connections to Parallel on Destination1s MDB properties
C. disable the option prefer local on MDB1 when installing the application
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D. set the option Connection proximity to Bus on Bus1s activation specification defaults
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 37
A cluster, Cluster1, contains application servers Server1 and Server2. Cluster1 is configured as a
member of service integration bus(SIBus)Bus1 using the High availability messaging engine
policy. A messaging engine (ME) for Busl starts up on Server1, and then Server1 crashes. An ME
for Busl will:
A. alreadybe running on Server2. When Server1 recovers, an ME for Busl will start on Server1.
B. start on Server2. When Server1 recovers, a second ME for Busl will start on Server1.
C. start on Server2 but fail back to Server1 after Server1 has recovered.
D. start on Server2 and continue running on Server2 even after Server1 has recovered.
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 38
An administrator has created a cluster, C1, and configured memory-to-memory HTTP session
replication. How can the administrator best ensure that every HTTP session is replicated on all
members of the cluster?
A. In the Replication domain settings for the C1 replication domain, set Number of replicas to
entire domain
B. In the Replication domain settings for the C1 replication domain, set Number of replicas to 0
C. In the Memory--to-memory replication settings for each member ofC1, set Number of replicas to
entire domain
D. In the Memory--to-memory replication settings for each member of C1, check Replicate to all
members
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 39
A J2EE application maintains information in the HTTP session in memory. This information can be
recreated, but there is a performance penalty to restore state if a user session fails over to a
different cluster member.
Which of the following features maximizes the use of information already stored in a server's
session?
A. Database persistence
B. Session affinity in Web serverplugin
C. Memory--to-memory replication in Both Mode
D. Memory--to-memory replication in Server Mode
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 40
An administrator wishes to control an Apache Web server on a remote host via the WebSphere
Application Server Network Deployment administrative console. What must be done to accomplish
this?
A. Configure a web server definition in the administrative console.
B. Configure the Apache administrative process on the remote node.
C. Configure an unmanaged node definition in the administrative console.
D. Configure a managed node on the remote host.
Answer: A,D
QUESTION NO: 41
A cluster, Cluster1, contains two servers, Serverl and Server2. Server1 has a weight of 20 and
Server2 has a weight of 4. A single web server is used to route HTTP requests to Cluster1. The
web server is started and receives 4 HTTP requests for an application deployed on Cluster1. If the
requests are all part of the same HTTP session, and the first request is routed to Server2, how
many requests are routed to Server1?
A. O
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 42
What does backupConfig back up?
A. Log files
B. Profile configuration
C. WebSphere binaries
D. First failure data capture (FFDC) directory
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 43
Where can administrator find binding information for an application?
A. In the IBM extension file
B. In the activation specification
C. In the deployment descriptors
D. Executing thewsadmin command AdminApp.viewBindings (-ApplicationName)
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 44
Which of the following statements best describes the type of data collected by request metrics?
A. Monitors health indicators such as CPU usage
B. Provides data for all transactions, without correlation
C. Provides data with respect to pools, queues, and system data
D. Tracks individual transactions, recording the processing time for each component
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 45
Which of the following actions would enable the collection of performance data for an application
server, given the Performance monitoring Infrastructure (PMI) is not enabled?
A. Usingwsadmin, invoke the enablePMICollection operation on the PerfMBean.
B. Usingwsadmin, invoke the setInstrumentationLevel operation on the PerfMBean.
C. In the administrative console, on the Performance tab for the server, select the Enable
Performance Monitoring Infrastructure (PMI) checkbox.
D. In the administrative console, on the Configuration tab for the server, click Performance
Monitoring Infrastructure (PMI) under Performance, and then select the Set instrumentation level
checkbox.
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 46
An application server has runtime provisioning enabled. What is the benefit of it? It:
A. allows shared class cache for runtime classes.
B. reduces server start time and memory footprint.
C. pre-loads all Enterprise Java Beans for the application.
D. enablesIight-weight runtime configuration service to reduce memory compaction frequency.
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 47
An application has poor performance. On examining verbose GC information the administrator
notices that 7OKB objects frequently cannot be allocated due to heap fragmentation, requiring
timerconsuming heap compaction. Which of the following is likely to improve performance?
A. Configure more operating system paging space.
B. Increase the size of the large object area (LOA).
C. Increase the size of the thread local heap (TLH).
D. Increase the size of the native heap.
E. Select theXnocompaction option.
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 48
An application spends 90% of its time in a complex servlet and the rest (10%) of time in a short
JDBC query.
On average, only 10% of the servlets are using database connections at any time. The application
starts to perform poorly after a new batch of users are introduced to the system. What measures
should the administrator recommend to determine the root cause of the problem?
A. Install Tivoli Performance Viewer (TPV) as IBM Support Assistant (ISA) add-on.
B. View advice messages in Tivoli Performance Viewer (TPV) by clicking the Advisor link.
C. Turn on Performance and Diagnostic Advisor in IBM Support Assistant (ISA) as a collector.
D. Install Tivoli Composite Application Manager (ITCAM) as IBM Support Assistant (ISA) add-on.
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 49
To install fix packs to remote hosts using the Centralized Installation Manager (CIM), the
administrator must download the update installer for the appropriate platforms into:
A. a directory on the class path of a Node Agent on each remote host
B. theWebSphere Application Server Network Deployment cells CIM repository.
C. the maintenance sub-directory of the application server install on each remote host.
D. the maintenance sub-directory of the profile root of the node hosting the CIM repository
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 50
What is the sequence of components which would typically be involved in the flow of a request
from a Web browser to a servlet?
A. External HTTP Server, HTTP Server Plug-in and EJB Container
B. Load Balancer, Embedded HTTP Server, HTTP Server Plug-in and Web Container
C. Edge Component, HTTP Server Plug-in, external HTTP Server, and Web Container
D. External HTTP Server, HTTP Server Plug-in, embedded HTTP Server and Web Container
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 51
A system administrator wants to improve response time and system load of a Web application
running in a clustered environment. What might the system administrator attempt to decrease the
response time of the Web application?
A. Configure dynamic caching
B. Enable memory-to-memory replication
C. Configure session replication to use a database.
D. Ensure that all cluster members are in the same node group.
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 52
How could an administrator manage multiple stand-alone application servers on different hosts in
a network?
By using:
A. a job manager which administers multiple application server nodes through administrative
agents
B. a deployment manager which administers multiple application server nodes through their node
agents
C. a high availability manager which administers multiple application server nodes through their
administrative agents
D an administrative agent which administers multiple application server nodes through their
administrative service
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 53
What are the three possible replication types for the dynamic caching service?
A. Client mode
B. Server mode
C. Not shared
D. Push only
E. Both push and pull
F. Broadcast mode
Answer: C,D,E
QUESTION NO: 54
When configuring automated transaction peer recovery for recovering inrflight transactions from
the transaction log, what is required from the file system?
A. RAID disks must be used to host the transaction log
B. Exclusive read only file locks and the ability to invalidate them
C. File locking must be disabled for Network File System Version 4 (NFSV4)
D. Lease-based exclusive locks on files
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 55
What is the advantage of deploying more than one messaging engine and linking them together in
a topology that has multiple interconnected service integration buses (SIBus)?
A. Enable protocol transformation between buses.
B. Improve the availability of the persistent storage.
C. Spread messaging workload across multiple servers.
D. Preserve message ordering through the messaging engines.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 56
Which of the following statements most accurately describes the relationship between a flexible
management topology and the network deployment cell?
A. Flexible management can be an alternative to the network deployment cell model.
B. Flexible management eliminates the need for node agents in a network deployment cell.
C. The flexible management topology is a replacement for the network deployment cell.
D. The flexible management job manager can perform all the tasks of the deployment manager.
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 57
Which one of the following statements is true about WebSphere Application Sewer HTTP session
management support'?
A. Session management canpersist session-related information in several ways.
B. Multiple requests from the same browser, each specifying a unique Web application, result in a
single session with multiple session IDs.
C. When an HTTP client interacts with aservlet, the state information associated with a series of
client requests is represented as a SSL ID.
D. The high availability (HA) manager is responsible for managing HTTP sessions, providing
storage for session data, allocating session IDs, and tracking the session ID associated with each
client request.
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 58
Performance of a database is degrading due an intensive database application. The administrator
suspects that the JDBC connection pool is not properly tuned. Which performance tools should the
administrator use for problem determination?
A. Request Metrics
B. System core dump viewer
C. IBM JVM heap dump analyzer
D. Tivoli Performance Viewer (TPV)
E. Performance Monitoring Infrastructure (PMI) analy1er
Answer: A,D
QUESTION NO: 59
An administrator wants to update a WebSphere Application Sewer installation to the latest fix
pack. The installation has no feature packs installed. Which fix packs does the administrator need
to download and install? The application sewer fix pack
A. SDKfix pack
B. Web services fix pack
C. EIB containerfix pack
D. Centralized Installation Manager (CIM)fix pack
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 60
Which of the following performance monitoring tools is the most appropriate for monitoring the
overall health of WebSphere Application Server?
A. Requestmetrks tool
B. Tivoli Performance Viewer
C. Transaction correlation tool
D. Tivoli System Health Viewer
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 61
How would an administrator enable the collection of performance data by using the administrative
console?
A. On the Performance tab for the server, select the Enable Performance Monitoring Infrastructure
(PMI) checkbox.
B. Click Monitoring and Tuning > Performance Viewer > Current Activity > server-name > Settings
> Enable Performance Monitoring Infrastructure (PMI)
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C. On the Configuration tab for the sewer, click Performance Monitoring Infrastructure (PMI) under
Performance, and then select the Set instrumentation level checkbox.
D. On the Configuration tab for the sewer, click Performance Monitoring Infrastructure (PMI) under
Performance, and then select the Enable Performance Monitoring Infrastructure (PMI) checkbox.
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 62
Which of the following thread pools are managed by WebSphere Application Server?
A. JVM thread pool
B. HTTP listenerthread pool
C. Web container thread pool
D. ORB container thread pool
E. Dynamic caching thread pool
Answer: C,D
QUESTION NO: 63
When backing up WebSphere Application Server configuration and runtime settings, which of the
following commands would be relevant?
A. backupConfig -location location
B. restoreConfig -profileName profile_name -backupFile backupFile_name.
C. manageprofiles -backupProfile -profileName profile_name -backupFile backupFile_name.
D. wsadmin -backupConfig -profileName profile_name -backupFile -backupFile_name.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 64
How does the administrator enable verbose garbage collection? Use:
A. thewsadmin script.
B. the -verbose:gc command-line option.
C. Rational Application Assembly and Deployment Tool.
D. Websphere Application Server environment variables.
E. the -Xoptionsfile command-line option with appropriate text file.
Answer: A,B,E
QUESTION NO: 65
A new cluster member has been added to a WebSphere Application Server. What changes will be
seen in the plug-in configuration file related to this modification?
A. There will be a new Name attribute inServerCluster with equal to the new cluster members
name.
B. There will be a Property element under Transport with a Name attribute equal to the new
clustermembers name.
C. There will be a new Server element underServerCluster with a Name attribute which includes
the new cluster members name.
D. There will be aVirtualHost element under VirtualHostGroup with a Name attribute equal to the
RMI-IIOP port number of the new cluster member.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 66
Which administrative object is used to deploy applications in WebSphere Application Server, ND,
V7.0?
A. Help
B. AdminApp
C. AdminDeploy
D. AdminControl
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 67
How is the plug-in configuration file viewed from the WebSphere Application Server administrative
console?
A. There is no facility to view the plug-in configuration file in the administrative console.
B. From the web servers list, select a particular web server. In the properties view, click Plug-in
properties.
Click View next to the Plug-in configuration file name.
C. On the left navigation bar, expand Servers, Server Types, and then Web Servers. Click on a
particular web server. The path of the plug-in file is shown here. Use a text file reader to view the
file.
D. On the left navigation bar, expand System Administration. Click on Server Management and go
to Web Servers. Select Plug-in File Management.
Clicking on the View link runs Notepad with the plug-in file open.
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 68
A developer informs an administrator that a servlet in one of the Web modules of a new enterprise
application needs to load its own version of some common Java classes provided by WebSphere
Application Server. In order to ensure that this version of classes are only visible to the Web
module, the administrator should:
A. place the jar files containing the classes in the lib/ext subdirectory of the application server
install directory and select Classes loaded with parent class loader first on the settings page for
the Web modules class loader.
B. instruct the developer to place the jar files containing the classes in the Web modules WEBINF/
lib directory and select Classes loaded with local class loader first on the settings page for the
Web modules class loader.
C. instruct the developer to place the jar files containing the classes in the enterprise applications
EAR file and select Classes loaded with parent class loader first on the settings page for the
enterprise applications class loader.
D. place the jar files containing the classes in a directory on the application servers file system and
create a shared library with these jar files in itsclasspath.
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 69
When an administrator creates a JMS destination queue or topic, what configuration information
must be provided in order to connect the JMS destination to a specific service integration bus
(SIBus)?
A. The messaging engines name.
B. The JMS provider type, bus name, bus destination.
C. The JNDI name of the bus destination and its scope.
D. The name of the messaging engine and the buss UUID.
Answer: B
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QUESTION NO: 70
In a Java EE application, how are servlets protected?
A. Security constraints
B. Method permissions
C. Java 2 security policy files
D. Administrative permissions
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 71
A Network Deployment cell contains a single cluster of application servers, but no stand-alone
servers. An application which uses JMS clients will be deployed to the cluster. In order for the
clients to produce and consume messages using default messaging, which one of the following
tasks must an administrator perform?
A. Start the messaging engine on each cluster member.
B. Scope the service integration bus (SIBus) to the cluster.
C. The cluster must be added as a member to a service integration bus (SIBus).
D. Create mediation and messaging point on the service integration bus (SIBus).
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 72
A developer informs an administrator that a servlet in one of the Web modules of a new enterprise
application needs to access code in a native library. The administrator creates a shared library and
adds the native library to its Native library path. With which class loader should the shared library
be associated so that the servlet can access the native library without risk of an
UnsatisfiedLinkError?
A. The Web modules class loader
B. The nativelibrays class loader
C. The application servers class loader
D. The enterprise applications class loader
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 73
What is the most common role that naming plays in WebSphere Application Server?
A. Allows applications to obtain references to objects such as EJB homes.
B. Allows Java programs (clients and Java EE applications) to create, send, receive, and read
asynchronous requests, as messages.
C Provides a runtime environment for enterprise beans within the application server.
C. Provides a secure facility to support Customer's basic organizational entity management needs.
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 74
Which one of the following can be used to instantiate resource adapter classes for establishing
and maintaining resource connections?
A. a data source
B. connection factories
C. connection pool settings
D. a JMS activation specification
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 75
To create a pool of connections that an application can use to interact with a database, the
administrator must create which one of the following?
A. JDBC provider
B. JCA resource adapter
C. High availability server
D. JMS activation specification
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 76
Which one of the following actions best describes how to remove application-scoped resources
from an enhanced EAR file?
A. Edit theibmconfig/deployment.xml file
B. Edit the application deployment descriptor
C. Remove theMETA--INF/application.xml file
D. Remove theMETA--INF/ibmconfig directory
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 77
Which of the following is an option given in the First Steps application that runs automatically after
installation?
A. Start the sewer.
B. Executewsadmin.
C. Configure resources.
D. Run the Snoopservlet.
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 78
An administrator has created a deployment manager profile. However, the administrator chose not
to create the Centralized Installation Manager (CIM) repository and populate it with the
WebSphere Application Server Network Deployment V7.0 product files. If, in the future, the
administrator wants to use the Centralized Installation Manager to install WebSphere Application
Server Network Deployment V7.0 on a remote host, which of the following tasks will be
necessary?
A. Create the CIM repository using the Installation Factory.
B. Create a new deployment manager profile including the CIM repository.
C. Use the Centralized Installation Manager to create an installation target.
D. Use the Centralized Installation Manager to create an installation package.
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 79
A system administrator is installing WebSphere Application Server for the first time and was
surprised that the Profile Management Tool (PMT) did not have the expected profile type options,
as stated in the Information Center. What is the best conclusion for this finding?
A. The Java runtime being used by the installation program is not at the required version.
B. The system administrator is installing a variant ofWebSphere Application Sewer that is not
Network Deployment.
C. The target operating system the system administrator is installing on is not compatible
withWebSphere Application Server.
D. A previous step in the installation has failed. The system administrator should cancel and check
the logs before starting over again.
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 80
Which of the following options is NOT a valid method of running the Profile Management Tool?
A. Run the command directly from a system console.
B. Select Profile Management Tool from the First Steps application.
C. Select System Administration --> Run Profile Management Tool in the administrative console.
D. Check the Create a newWebSphere Application Server profile using the Profile Management
Tool option at the end of the installation process.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 81
How is the response file specified in a silent installation scenario?
A. Specified in theinstallation.properties file
B. Specified as a parameter in thelaunchpad user interface
C. Included as a command-line option on the install command
D. Included as a command-line option on thelaunchpad application
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 82
Global security is turned on for a federated cell using a file-based federated repository. The
administrator created a new security domain called App1Domain using local operating system
registry and mapping it to the application server. The administrator also created a new local
operating system user ID App1Admin. Which one of the following is true when the new security
domain is enabled to secure Application1?
A. The administrator can accessApplicationl.
B. The administrator can disableApplicationl security.
C. App1Admin can disableApplicationl security.
D. App1Admin can access the administrative console.
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 83
How are Java EE 5 security permissions assigned to actual users in WebSphere Application
Server?
A. By mapping application roles to users or groups within theWebSphere user registry.
B. By generating the users in application.xml which will be created in the registry during deploy
time.
C. By theWebSphere Application Server itself, automatically, by introspecting the classes in the
application.
D. By creating the users in the application itself which will be created in the registry during deploy
time.
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 84
An administrator adds a new node to a cell. They then add a new cluster member to that node.
What should the administrator do to best ensure that the Web servers will be able to communicate
with the new cluster members securely?
A. Ensure that all Web servers have access to the new nodes personal certificate.
B. Copy the pluginrcfg.xml files toall of the Web server <web- server_root>/config directories.
C. Run thepropagateCertificates script on the new node and specify the list of Web server.
D. Propagate the new plug-inkeystores to the appropriate directories on each of the existing Web
server machines.
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 85
In creating a security plan, an architect needs to consider how to use multiple security domains
within a WebSphere cell. Which one of the following would NOT be appropriate to consider?
A. Nodes
B. Servers
C. Clusters
D. Enterprise Applications
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 86
A security specialist for a WebSphere Application Server Network Deployment V7.0 cell is
concerned about the data within the audit records. To protect the data, they configure audit record
encryption using a keystore called AuditkeyStore which contains a new certificate called
AuditCertificate. With that done, what is now needed to view the data?
A. The password to theAuditCertificate
B. The password to theAuditkeyStore
C. The public key for theAuditCertificate
D. Access to the console as administrator
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 87
In order to configure auditing within a WebSphere cell, which of the following is required?
A. An administrative user account that has auditor role access must be used.
B. The primary administrative user must be used to configure any auditing functions.
C. The administrator must be defined within the auditor security domain and have cell level
monitor access.
D. The auditor encryption signer cen1ificate must be added to thecellDefaultTrustStore and
synchronized to all nodes within the cell.
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 88
An administrator would like to use fine--grained administrative security to manage service
integration bus (SIBus) resources such as messaging engine. Identify what is required to enable
this resource as part of fine--grained administration via the WebSphere Application Server
administrative console.
A. DefineAdministrativeSecurityRole for SIBus resource.
B. ScopeSIBus messaging engine from sewer to cell level.
C. SIBus messaging engine cannot be managed by fine--grained administration.
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D. MigrateWebSphere Application Server V6.1 to WebSphere Application Server V7 cell to
manage SIBus messaging engine.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 89
During installation, administrative security was enabled using the default file-based repository.
After installation, the administrator must change the password that was provided during the
installation. How can this password be changed?
A. Invokewsadmin and run the updateDMgrFileRepository command to update the password.
B Manually edit the primary administrative users password in the fileRegistry.xml file.
B. Use the Manage Users page in the administrative console and change the primary
administrativeusers password.
C. Configure the Federated repositories realm using the administrative console and change the
primary administrativeusers password.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 90
A JMS client needs to access a secured service integration bus (SIBus) using a connection
factory. When the administrator configures the connection factory, what must be done to grant the
client permission to access the bus?
A. Enable Java 2 security in the buss security domain.
B. Enable the JMS client and the connection factory to use SSL protected transports.
C. Map the connectionfactorys authentication alias to the bus connector role.
D. Create a principal in the user registry for the JMS client to access connection factory.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 91
What would have to be configured in order to implement memory--to-memory HTTP Session
persistence?
A. Dynamic cache service and HTTP plug-in
B. Synchronization service and embedded Web server
C. Distributed environment settings in the web containers
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D. Fast Response Cache Accelerator (FRCA) and external Web server
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 92
What is the Data Replication Service (DRS) used for? Please choose three from the following.
A. Node agents
B. Web sewers
C. Caching Proxy
D. Dynamic cache replication
E. HTTP session persistence and failover
F. Stateful session EIB persistence and failover
Answer: D,E,F
QUESTION NO: 93
Why does IBM WebSphere Application Server Network Deployment utilize node groups to
implement a distributed environment? To:
A. segment multiple security domains within a WebSphere cell.
B. define the logical grouping of application servers to scale horizontally or vertically.
C. enable mixed nodes with different capabilities within the same cell for administration purposes.
D. allow application servers having the same applications installed to be grouped logically for
workload management.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 94
What can the system administrator do to distribute incoming HTTP traffic across a farm of Web
servers?
A. Enable sewer affinity for each HTTP server in the cluster
B. Implement the Tivoli Access Manager as a load balancer
C. Implement the caching proxy server component of the Edge Components
D. Use the Load Balancer component of the Edge Components
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 95
Which type of server is recommended to be placed in the demilitarized zone (DMZ)?
A. Generic servers
B. Application servers
C. Managed HTTP servers
D. Unmanaged HTTP servers
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 96
In Order for a deployment manager to participate in a flexible management environment, which
one uf the following steps must be completed?
A. Register directly with the job manager.
B. Register with the node agent on the jobmanagers host.
C. Register with an administrative agent on the jobmanagers host
D. First register with a local administrative agent, and then register with the job manager.
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 97
A system administrator needs to modify the configuration of an enterprise application within a
flexible management environment. The system administrator can make the modification using
wsadmin scripts by connecting to which of the following components?
A. Node agent
B. Job manager
C. Work manager
D. Administrative agent
E. Deployment manager
Answer: B,E
QUESTION NO: 98
Username and password are specified as parameters for the addNode command to authenticate
with:
A. the node agent if its administrative security is enabled
B. theaddNode command itself since it is password protected
C. the node to be federated if its administrative security is enabled
D. the deployment manager if its administrative security is enabled
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 99
An administrator wants to configure HTTP session replication, Stateful Session bean replication,
and the Dynamic cache for members of a cluster. Which of these consumers should share a
replication domain?
A. Stateful Session Bean replication and Dynamic cache
B. HTTP Session replication and Dynamic cache
C. HTTP Session replication andStateful Session Bean replication
D. HTTP Session replication and messaging engine replication
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 100
A cluster, Cluster1, contains two servers, Serverl and Server2. Serverl has a weight of 2 and
Server2 has a weight of 4. A single web server is used to route HTTP requests to Cluster1. The
web server is started and receives 3 HTTP requests for an application deployed on Cluster1.
Assuming no session affinity, how many requests will the plug--in route to Sewer2?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 101
A cluster with 5 servers is configured as a member of a service integration bus (SIBus) using the
Scalability with high availability messaging engine policy. What are the possible numbers of
messaging engines that might be running on an individual server in the cluster?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
Answer: A,B
QUESTION NO: 102
Which one of the following is a true statement?
A. A cluster can run multiple messaging engines for a single service integration bus (SIBus).
B A service integration bus (SIBus) destination can only exist on a single messaging engine
B. A single service integration bus (SIBus) can span multiple WebSphere Application Server cells.
C. AWebSphere Application Server Network Deployment cell can only contain a single service
integration bus (SIBus).
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 103
An administrator wants to run a Web server on an unmanaged node with no administrative
process. Which of the following issues result from this configuration?
A. The administrative console will not be able to generate a plug-in configuration file for this Web
sewer.
B. Applications will not be able to use this Web sewer as a deployment target.
C. The plug-in configuration file must be manually propagated to the Web server host.
D. This Web server will not be able to perform workload management of requests to a cluster of
application servers.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 104
An administrator creates a horizontal cluster and deploys an application that uses several EJBs.
How can the administrator ensure that EJB client requests are routed to the same node on which
the client resides?
A. Enable the prefer local option for the cluster.
B. Set the scope of the data source to node instead of cluster.
C. Disable the 0RBs workload management plug-in for each cluster member.
D. Enablestateful session bean failover using memory-to-memory replication.
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 105
A user is taken through a series of Web pages in an online store and eventually checks out to
complete his purchase. In the event of a server failure, the user should not have to repeat a step
that has already been performed. Which session management strategy is best suited if the user
cannot tolerate a loss in session information?
A. Database persistence to externaldatastore
B. Memory--to-memory replication inBoth mode
C. Memory--to-memory replication in Client mode
D. Memory--to-memory replication in Server mode
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 106
The administrator ran into a memory leak problem. A .phd file was produced when an
OutOfMemoryError occurred. Verbose:gc output indicated the heap was exhausted after running a
period of 10 hours. Which tool is recommended for analyzing the memory problem?
A. Log analyzer
B. ISA Thread Dump Analyzer
C. Memory Dump Diagnostic for Java (MDD4J)
D. IBM Thread and Monitor Dump Analy1er (TMDA)
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 107
Which of the following will force a JVM thread dump.
A. kill --9 <processrid>
B. F SERVERNAME,JAVADUMP
C. Using thewsadmin command prompt: jvm =
AdminControl.completeServerNameList("type:JVM,process:
server1,*") AdminControl.invoke(jvm, "dumpAllThreads")
D. Using thewsadmin command prompt: jvm =
AdminControl.completeServerNameList("type:JVM,process:server1,*") AdminControl.invoke(jvm,
"dumpThreads")
QUESTION NO: 108
When configuring a servers diagnostic trace service, in order to have trace level data written to the
trace log, which one of the following tasks must be performed?
A. Set the log detail level to fatal.
B. Set the Trace Output Format toAdvanced.
C. Set the log detail level to fine, finer, finest or all.
D Use a trace string specification of com.ibm.*=detail.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 109
As part of a diagnostic data collection plan, an administrator must gather server JVM logs and
archive them every week. How can the administrator configure a server so that the logs are
available for weekly archiving?
A. Use the Advanced setting for log file formatting and rotation.
B. Use the administrative console to set Runtime messages to Info.
C. Use appropriate settings for log rotation and number of historical logs.
D. Set the archive and log rotation values in theffdcRun.properties file.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 110
An administrator notices that the <profile_root>/logs directory is filling up with heapdump and
javacore files.
Before analyzing these files, what should the administrator do to determine which application
components might be causing these files to be dumped?
A. Examine the application servers SystemErr.log and look forOutOfMemoryError exceptions and
stack traces.
B. Monitor the application servers JVM using Tivoli Performance Viewer and look for steady
growth in the heap size.
C. Use the Log Analyzer to view the applicationservers trace.log file and look for application
startup failures.
D. Gather the applicationservers verbose garbage collection data and look for relatively long
garbage collection cycles.
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 111
An application server is producing heap dumps. Which tool in IBM Support Assistant (ISA) is used
to perform analysis on the heap dump?
A. Log Analyzer
B. ThreadAnalyzer
C. Trace and Request Analyzer
D. Memory Dump Diagnostic for Java
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 112
An administrator has defined a connection factory, jms/CF, which is required by an application that
runs on a cluster. Three of the clusters four members run the application without error. On the
fourth member, a NameNotFoundException is thrown attempting to look up jms/CF. The
administrator uses the dumpNameSpace command to examine the namespace of the fourth
member and verifies that jms/CF is not in the namespace. What is the most likely cause?
A. The fourth cluster member is running on a different operating system than the other three.
B. The administrator has not defined thejms/CF connection factory at a scope visible to the fourth
cluster member.
C. The fourth cluster member has not been selected as a deployment target for the application.
D. The administrator has specified a maximum of 3 connections on thejms/CF connection factory.
Answer: B

PEGA-PRPC PERSONAL EDITION 7.1.6 INSTALLATION SCREEN SHORTS

PEGA-CSA v6.2 Dumps

Certified System Architect Exam (CSA) v6.2 Questions with answers

QUESTION: 1
Which two statements are true about Activity step pages? (Choose Two)
A. The step page always corresponds to the class named in the Applies To key part of the Activity
B. Step pages are automatically removed when an Activity ends
C. The step page sets the default page context for the duration of the step's execution
D. Named step pages are not required for each step of an Activity
Answer(s): C, D

QUESTION: 2
Which Activity method is used to view the contents of a step page in XML format? (Choose One)
A. Page-New
B. Show-Page
C. Property-Set
D. Step pages cannot be viewed as XML
Answer(s): B

QUESTION: 3
Which two are characteristics of the primary page of an Activity? (Choose Two)
A. It is a clipboard page named Primary
B. It is the default location of properties referenced with a dot and no preceding page name
C. It is the same as the parameter page
D. It is a clipboard page of the Applies To class of the activity or one of its ancestors
Answer(s): B, D

QUESTION: 4
What is the transition in an Activity used for? (Choose One)
A. To repeat a step several times, or until a condition is met
B. To change the harness display
C. To jump to a previous step in the Activity
D. To specify conditional processing which is evaluated after the method in the step is executed
Answer(s): D

QUESTION: 5
Which of the following can an activity do that a data transform cannot? (Choose One)
A. Set the value of a property on a clipboard page
B. Apply a data transform
C. Route a work item
D. Remove a clipboard page
Answer(s): C

QUESTION: 6
Which statements describe the use of methods in an activity? (Choose Two)
A. Methods are atomic operations performed in activity steps
B. Methods are the same as Java methods
C. You can create activity methods for use in your activities
D. Methods can be applied to clipboard pages
Answer(s): A, D

QUESTION: 7
Which of the following tools can be used to accelerate the creation of rules used to support PRPC
connectors and services? (Choose Two)
A. Application Profile Wizard
B. Connector and Metadata Accelerator
C. Application Accelerator
D. Service Accelerator
Answer(s): B, D

QUESTION: 8
A PRPC component that defines and implements an interface between an external application
acting as a client and a Process Commander system acting as a server is called a
______________________? (Choose One)
A. Connector
B. Activity
C. Service
D. Assignment
Answer(s): C

QUESTION: 9
The Connector and Metadata Accelerator can simplify the creation of a connector by
________________________ to create the necessary rules. (Choose Two)
A. parsing a WSDL
B. parsing a provided Java source file
C. introspecting class metadata
D. creating an SQL query
Answer(s): A, C

QUESTION: 10
Which of the following is the best method for requesting data from an SQL database? (Choose One)
A. SQL connector
B. SQL listener
C. Service package
D. External database table class mapping
Answer(s): D

QUESTION: 11
Once you create a simulation for a connector, the simulation remains in effect
__________________________. (Choose One)
A. until disabled by using the Connector Simulation tool
B. until the simulation activity is deleted
C. permanently on the system; it can never be disabled
D. until the first call to the connector is completed
Answer(s): A

QUESTION: 12
On which flow shape would you reference a service rule? (Choose One)
A. Decision
B. Integrator
C. Assignment
D. None of the above shapes
Answer(s): D

QUESTION: 13
Why should a business process be run at least once before measuring it with Performance Analyzer
(PAL)? (Choose One)
A. So PAL can establish a baseline
B. So Rules Assembly occurs and does not adversely affect the outcome
C. So PAL can start up properly
D. So the developer can capture Rules Assembly times
Answer(s): B

QUESTION: 14
Which statement is true about Work Users utilizing the Clipboard tool? (Choose One)
A. They may use it to change their portal layout
B. They may use it to change their password
C. They have no access to the Clipboard tool from the standard User portal
D. They may use it to update work object properties
Answer(s): C

QUESTION: 15
What is the primary purpose of the My Alerts tool? (Choose One)
A. To review and resolve interactions that exceed predefined threshold settings
B. To insert JavaScript alerts into HTML property rules
C. To establish PRPC threshold settings in the prconfig.xml file
D. To create personal alerts warning the System Architect of rule conflicts
Answer(s): A

QUESTION: 16
Which of the following tools are most commonly used to evaluate performance during development
of a PRPC application? (Choose Three)
A. Preflight
B. PAL
C. Rules Inspector
D. My Alerts
E. Clipboard
Answer(s): A, B, D

QUESTION: 17
(True or False) When you optimize a property for reporting, any data saved in the BLOB up to that
point is not available for reports.
A. True
B. False
Answer(s): B

QUESTION: 18
An operator enters data into fields on a work item form. When does PRPC write the data to the
database? (Choose One)
A. When the user leaves each field
B. When the user submits the form, but before any validation occurs
C. When the user completes the last assignment in the process
D. When the user submits the form, and after any validation occurs
Answer(s): D

QUESTION: 19
Service Level rules include which of the following time intervals? (Choose Two)
6
A. Milestone
B. Requirement
C. Goal
D. Deadline
Answer(s): C, D

QUESTION: 20
Which connector type can be used to connect an Assignment to another shape? (Choose One)
A. Flow Action
B. Always
C. When
D. Status
Answer(s): A

QUESTION: 21
Select two statements which are true about likelihood values associated with flow actions within a
flow rule? (Choose Two)
A. Likelihood values are automatically computed and adjusted within a flow by the system based on
end user behavior over time
B. A likelihood is an integer between 0 and 100
C. Likelihood values stemming from a single flow assignment must equal 100%
D. Likelihood values determine the presentation order of flow actions to the end user on a Perform
form
Answer(s): B, D

QUESTION: 22
In which rule is the New harness for a new work object specified? (Choose One)
A. The concrete class of the work object
B. The NewDefaults activity
C. The pyDefault model
D. The flow rule
Answer(s): D

QUESTION: 23
Which of the following attributes can be defined in an Assignment Properties panel in a flow?
(Choose Two)
A. When rule
B. Local Action
C. Valid connectors
D. Service Level
Answer(s): B, D

QUESTION: 24
What is an object in memory called? (Choose One)
A. An item
B. An instance
C. A page
D. An expression
Answer(s): C

QUESTION: 25
An Assignment shape specifies the standard assignment type worklist, and references the
ToWorkBasket router. What happens at runtime? (Choose One)
A. The flow will be suspended and control will be transferred to the FlowProblems flow
B. The object will be routed to a worklist
C. The object will be routed to a workbasket
D. The work object will display an error and not be created successfully
Answer(s): A

QUESTION: 26
Which three are standard party-related classes? (Choose Three)
A. Data-Party-Person
B. Data-Party-Group
C. Data-Party-Operator
D. Data-Party-Com
Answer(s): A, C, D

QUESTION: 27
Which of the following statuses is the standard default status assigned to all new work objects?
(Choose One)
A. Open
B. New
C. Resolved-Completed
D. Start
Answer(s): B

QUESTION: 28
Which part of the flow rule defines the work type label displayed to end users when creating a work
object and to developers when testing the flow? (Choose One)
A. The purpose/name of the flow rule
B. The class in which the flow is built
C. The full description of the flow rule
D. The short description of the flow rule
Answer(s): D

QUESTION: 29
What types of correspondence are supported by PRPC? (Choose Four)
A. Email
B. Letter
C. SMS Text
D. Pager
E. Fax
Answer(s): A, B, C, E

QUESTION: 30
(True or False) Local actions allow users to take specific actions at runtime but do not move the
work object forward in the flow.
A. True
B. False
Answer(s): A

QUESTION: 31
(True or False) Worklists are not customizable.
A. True
B. False
Answer(s): B

QUESTION: 32
(True or False) A single flow can contain multiple End shapes.
A. True
B. False
Answer(s): A

QUESTION: 33
What is the primary purpose of an Assignment shape in a flow? (Choose One)
A. To generate correspondence automatically
B. To pause the flow while the work object is manually researched or analyzed
C. To resolve the work object
D. To initiate a subflow
Answer(s): B

QUESTION: 34
(True or False) Business process flows cannot be tested from the Designer Studio.
A. True
B. False
Answer(s): B

QUESTION: 35
Which type of rule defines the portion of a work object that typically contains information about
people, companies and organizations interested in a work object? (Choose One)
A. Operator
B. Access Group
C. Work Parties
D. Organization
Answer(s): C

QUESTION: 36
(True or False) With process-driven PRPC, a work item is guided through its lifecycle by a process,
which is captured using a flow diagram that is for reference only and not used to generate
executable code.
A. True
B. False
Answer(s): B

QUESTION: 37
Which of the following statements regarding Connector Flow Actions is true? (Choose One)
A. The likelihoods of all of the Connector Flow Actions on a shape must add up to 100
B. A Connector Flow Action specifies an action that can complete an assignment
C. The end user cannot differentiate between a Connector Flow Action and a Local Flow Action
D. A Connector Flow Action represents the outcome of an automated decision
Answer(s): B

QUESTION: 38
Upon reaching a Fork shape, PRPC will first evaluate the When rule referenced by
________________________. (Choose One)
A. the connector that has the lowest Likelihood value
B. the connector that has the greatest likelihood value
C. the connector that returns the first true result
D. the leftmost connector
Answer(s): B

QUESTION: 39
Which of the following should be included in a draft flow? (Choose Four)
A. Decision shapes
B. Decision rules
C. Use cases
D. Integration activities
E. Work status
F. Flow action rules
Answer(s): A, C, E, F

QUESTION: 40
Which statements are true of a screen flow? (Choose Two)
A. Ownership of a work item cannot be transferred within the flow
B. A screen flow can be used as a starting flow
C. A screen flow can call another screen flow
D. A screen flow can use a subprocess shape to spin off a starting flow
Answer(s): A, C

QUESTION: 41
Which of the following is not a valid characteristic of a starting flow? (Choose One)
A. A starting flow creates a work item
B. A starting flow can be a screen flow
C. A starting flow can reference a data transform
D. A starting flow can reference a work parties rule
Answer(s): B

QUESTION: 42
Which of the following shapes are not allowed in a screen flow? (Choose Two)
A. Decision
B. Split For Each
C. Split Join
D. Utility
E. Subprocess
F. Swimlane
Answer(s): C, F

QUESTION: 43
Is the following flow an example of a valid screen flow? (Choose One)
A. Yes
B. No
C. Cannot be determined from the diagram
Answer(s): A

QUESTION: 44
Which of the following is NOT true of a local flow action? (Choose One)
A. It advances the flow
B. It permits users to complete an auxilliary task, such as attaching supporting documentation
C. It can be used to update assignment or work item properties
D. It causes the assignment to remain on the current user's worklist
Answer(s): A

QUESTION: 45
In which category of the Application Explorer do you find Correspondence rules? (Choose One)
A. User Interface
B. Process
C. Reports
D. Decision
Answer(s): B

QUESTION: 46
Which flow shapes can be used to send correspondence? (Choose Two)
A. Assignment
B. Subprocess
C. Connector
D. Utility
Answer(s): A, D

QUESTION: 47
A red alarm clock indicates that the assignment is _____________. (Choose One)
A. within ten seconds of the deadline
B. within one minute of the deadline
C. within one hour of the deadline
D. within one hour of the goal
E. within one day of the goal
Answer(s): C

QUESTION: 48
Which of the following is not a standard work status prefix? (Choose One)
A. Resolved
B. Withdrawn
C. Pending
D. Open
E. New
Answer(s): B

QUESTION: 49
Which of the following statements about work status is true? (Choose One)
A. Work status is set at the beginning of a flow and at the end of a flow, but never in between
B. Once a work item is resolved, it no longer appears on a worklist, in a workbasket, or in the
database
C. You can use Utility and Assignment shapes to set the work status
D. The PRPC best practice is to always define custom status values and avoid using the standard
status prefixes
Answer(s): C

QUESTION: 50
Default work parties are created by ______________. (Choose One)
A. the Application Profile
B. the Application Accelerator
C. a System Architect
D. a Lead System Architect
Answer(s): B

QUESTION: 51
Which local flow action would you add to an assignment to allow an operator to add work parties
while processing a work item? (Choose One)
A. AddWorkParty
B. AddParty
C. AddWorkPartyRole
D. RouteToParty
Answer(s): B

QUESTION: 52
Which rule types can be specified on a flow action rule form, to process data entered by the user?
(Choose Three)
A. Activity
B. Validate
C. Edit Validate
D. Data Transform
E. Service Level
F. Edit Input
Answer(s): A, B, D

QUESTION: 53
What is the best way to resolve a work item in a flow? (Choose One)
A. Set the work item status to a value beginning with "Resolved-" on the last assignment in the flow
B. Use a utility to call the UpdateStatus activity to set the work item status to a value beginning with
"Resolved-"
C. A work item is automatically resolved when it reaches the end shape
D. Use a decision rule to set the work item status
Answer(s): B

QUESTION: 54
Review the following diagram:
The Escalate shape represents a(n) ________. (Choose One)
A. Comment
B. Activity
C. Flow/subflow
D. Decision
Answer(s): C

QUESTION: 55
How would you designate a “go to” destination for a flow to continue processing, providing an
alternative to the normal, sequential processing of the flow? (Choose One)
A. Use a fork to branch the flow
B. Use a decision to branch the flow
C. Create an activity to branch the flow as needed
D. Set a ticket on the destination shape, and then call the ticket as needed
Answer(s): D

QUESTION: 56
Which shape should be used to call a decision tree to evaluate work object properties? (Choose
One)
A. Shape 1
B. Shape 2
C. Shape 3
D. Shape 4
Answer(s): B

QUESTION: 57
Review the following diagram:
If the WithinLimit shape references a Decision Tree rule, which type of connector is OverLimit?
(Choose One)
A. When
B. Status
C. Always
D. Flow Action
Answer(s): B

QUESTION: 58
If a flow is placed in Draft mode, which of the following two statements are true? (Choose Two)
A. Additional shapes cannot be added
B. Rules may be referenced that do not yet exist
C. The flow can be executed
D. The flow rule is not subject to rule resolution
Answer(s): B, C

QUESTION: 59
Which of the following three shapes are available in a screen flow? (Choose Three)
A. Utility
B. Integrator
C. Subprocess
D. Assignment Service
E. Split Join
F. Decision
Answer(s): A, C, F

QUESTION: 60
Which shape should be used to call a connector in a flow? (Choose One)
A. Shape 1
B. Shape 2
C. Shape 3
D. Shape 4
Answer(s): C

QUESTION: 61
What is the result of clicking the Where-am-I? ( ) button on a work item form? (Choose One)
A. The harness rule currently in use is displayed in the Designer Studio
B. The user’s worklist is displayed
C. The flow diagram of the current flow rule is displayed in a separate window with an arrow
marking the current assignment
D. The user’s Organization, Division and Unit information from the clipboard is displayed within a
separate XML window
Answer(s): C

QUESTION: 62
(True or False) Embedded pages cannot be nested in other embedded pages.
A. True
B. False
Answer(s): B

QUESTION: 63
Which property mode may use a non-numeric subscript? (Choose One)
A. Java Object
B. Single Value
C. Page Group
D. Page List
Answer(s): C

QUESTION: 64
Review the following clipboard page:
If pyWorkPage is considered the primary page of an activity, what is the correct way to identify the
property reference to ClaimAmount in the PastClaims page? (Choose One)
A. .PastClaims.ClaimAmount(1)
B. pyWorkPage.PastClaims(1).ClaimAmount
C. .PastClaims(1).ClaimAmount
D. .ClaimAmount
Answer(s): C

QUESTION: 65
Review the following screenshot:
In the Miscellaneous Items section, the user can enter several item names. The entered values are
stored in the Items property. Which type of property is this? (Choose One)
A. Page
B. Page List
C. Single Value
D. Value List
Answer(s): B

QUESTION: 66
Page List properties typically reference a class derived - directly or indirectly - from which
superclass? (Choose One)
A. Data-
B. Work-
C. Embed-
D. Index-
Answer(s): A

QUESTION: 67
Validate rules may be specified in which one of the following rule types to validate the properties
displayed on the user interface? (Choose One)
A. Flow Action
B. Section
C. Harness
D. Flow
Answer(s): A

QUESTION: 68
By default, where in the database is the data collected by a property you create as part of your data
model is stored? (Choose One)
A. The BLOB column
B. A dedicated column
C. A lookup table
D. A declarative index
Answer(s): A

QUESTION: 69
Which of the following statements is false? (Choose One)
A. Page properties can consist of an ordered list of unique property names
B. Threads contain information about a requestor's sessions and associated thread(s), the
application they are accessing, its context, the operator and their organization
C. The name of a page may not derive from system-created pages with reserved names and
purposes
D. pyWorkPage page is a common clipboard page that contains information created during the
processing of a work item
Answer(s): A

QUESTION: 70
When creating a data transform, what should you do if the number of rows exceeds 25 rows?
(Choose One)
A. In the final row, call an activity to perform the remaining actions
B. Move all of the Set actions rows to the pyDefault data transform rule to reduce the number of
rows
C. In the final row, use the Apply Data Transform action to invoke another data transform that
defines the additional actions
D. Use the <APPEND> keyword in actions instead of adding rows for the Append action
Answer(s): C

QUESTION: 71
A data transform in the PurchaseOrder-Work class uses the Set action to set a value for the
property BillingState on the Customer page. The value is MA. The Customer page is specified on the
Pages & Classes tab of the data transform rule form. Which one of the following describes how to
specify the row in the rule form for accomplishing this Set action without any errors or warnings
upon saving the rule form? (Choose One)
A. Select Set in the Action column, enter Customer.BillingState in the Target column, and enter MA
in the Source column
B. Select Set in the Action column, enter Primary.BillingState in the Target column, and enter MA in
the Source column
C. Select Set in the Action column, enter Primary.BillingState in the Target column, and enter "MA"
in the Source column
D. Select Set in the Action column, enter Customer.BillingState in the Target column, and enter "MA"
in the Source column
Answer(s): D

QUESTION: 72
When creating a work item, which of the following rules can be used to set the initial value of a
property? (Choose Two)
A. Property
B. Declare Expressions
C. Data Transform
D. Declare Pages
Answer(s): B, C

QUESTION: 73
A data transform rule can be called by a _____________________ rule. (Choose Three)
A. Data Transform
B. Decision Tree
C. Flow Action
D. Flow
E. Declare Expressions
F. Property
Answer(s): A, C, D

QUESTION: 74
Which of the following is not true of the Data Table editor? (Choose One)
A. It is used to add, update, or delete instances of a concrete class
B. It enables developers to maintain instances of the class in the data table
C. It cannot maintain Value List properties
D. None of the above
Answer(s): C

QUESTION: 75
Which of the following is not a valid property mode? (Choose One)
A. Single Value
B. Page Item
C. Page List
D. Page Group
Answer(s): B

QUESTION: 76
Each of the following properties are set by a pyDefault data transform rule in the indicated class.
GLBX-FW-OnboardingFW-Work
.pxUrgencyWork = 5
Work-Object-
.pyLabel = "Work item"
@baseclass
.pxUrgencyWork = 10
.pyLabel = "Work item"
Work-
.pxCreateOperator = "System Architect"
GLBX-FW-OnboardingFW-Work-Equipment Request
.pyLabel = "Work item"
Given the following inheritance diagram, if these data transforms are all superclassed, which
properties will have their values written to the clipboard? (Choose Three)
A. .pyLabel = "Work item" (Work-Object-)
B. .pxUrgencyWork = 10 (@baseclass)
C. .pyLabel = "Work item" (GLBX-FW-OnboardingFW-Work-EquipmentRequest)
D. .pxCreateOperator = "System Architect" (Work-)
E. .pyLabel = "Work item" (@baseclass)
F. .pxUrgencyWork = 5 (GLBX-FW-OnboardingFW-Work)
Answer(s): C, D, F

QUESTION: 77
A local list is defined for a property. Which control should be used to create a selection list for this
property? (Choose One)
A. PromptFieldValueLocalized
B. PromptSelect
C. GetLocalizedValue
D. SmartPrompt
E. DynamicSelect
Answer(s): B

QUESTION: 78
When multiple pyDefault data transforms are applied in the creation of a new work object, how are
duplicate values for the same property treated? (Choose One)
A. All property values are set, since a clipboard page can accept multiple values for the same single
value property
B. The first instance of a property found in a data transform is used and not overridden
C. An exception is thrown
D. Property values are overridden each time a new instance of a property is found in a subsequently
applied data transform
Answer(s): D

QUESTION: 79
Chaining allows you to use multiple data transforms to initialize property values for new work
objects in an application. Which two actions should be taken to implement this feature? (Choose
Two)
A. Make sure no properties are repeated in the data transforms to be used
B. Make sure all data transforms to be used are in the same RuleSet
C. Check the "Call superclass data transform" box in all data transforms that are to be used
D. Make sure all data transforms to be used have identical names
Answer(s): C, D

QUESTION: 80
A decision needs to be made about whether to issue a health insurance policy based upon the
properties Age, Gender, Smoker, Alcohol Use, and Preexisting Conditions. Each property is
evaluated for each of ten conditions. Which two rule types are best to use? (Choose Two)
A. When
B. Map Value
C. Decision Tree
D. Decision Table
Answer(s): C, D

QUESTION: 81
Review the following Decision Table:
If the credit score is 600 and the outstanding balance is 3000, which value will be returned?
(Choose One)
A. ApproveLevel2
B. ApproveLevel1
C. Reject
D. No value
Answer(s): C

QUESTION: 82
Which Decision rule type is best used to display nested "if" statements? (Choose One)
A. Map Value
B. When Condition
C. Decision Table
D. Decision Tree
Answer(s): D

QUESTION: 83
What happens if none of the rows in a Decision Table evaluate to True? (Choose One)
A. The table does not return a result value
B. The table's next-highest ancestor is evaluated
C. The table returns a default 'otherwise' value
D. The system cycles through the table again to check for errors
Answer(s): C

QUESTION: 84
A requirement specification states that if a test score is between 91 and 100, assign the grade A; 81
- 90, assign a B; 71 - 80, assign a C. Which two rule types are appropriate for this requirement?
(Choose Two)
A. Decision Table
B. Decision Tree
C. When Condition
D. Flow Action
Answer(s): A, B

QUESTION: 85
Which of the following rule types can be used to evaluate multiple property values and, as a result,
return a text value defined in the rule? (Choose One)
A. Decision Tree
B. Constraints
C. When Condition
D. Validate
Answer(s): A

QUESTION: 86
(True or False) Decision Table rules can be edited in Excel.
A. True
B. False
Answer(s): A

QUESTION: 87
(True or False) Two or more comparisons can be placed into a single cell in a Decision Table rule
using multiple OR conditions.
A. True
B. False
Answer(s): A

QUESTION: 88
Which rule type is not classified as a decision rule? (Choose One)
A. Decision Table
B. Decision Tree
C. Map Value
D. When
E. Declare Expressions
Answer(s): E

QUESTION: 89
Which of the following is not associated with the Decision shape? (Choose One)
A. Decision table
B. Map value
C. When rule
D. Decision tree
Answer(s): C

QUESTION: 90
(True or False) When PRPC evaluates a decision tree, if the entire tree is processed without
returning a true result, the Otherwise value is returned.
A. True
B. False
Answer(s): A

QUESTION: 91
(True or False) A When rule can be used to conditionally allow a user to perform an action.
A. True
B. False
Answer(s): A

QUESTION: 92
Select the answer that best describes how PRPC executes a decision tree. (Choose One)
A. PRPC evaluates the if portion of the array
B. PRPC continues until it reaches a Return statement
C. PRPC returns the Otherwise value if the entire tree is processed without encountering a Return
statement
D. PRPC performs all of the above actions when evaluating a decision tree
Answer(s): D

QUESTION: 93
A When rule is referenced by which flow shape? (Choose One)
A. Decision
B. Fork
C. Connector
D. Assignment
Answer(s): C

QUESTION: 94
A Decision shape in a flow can represent either a decision or a fork. Which of the following
statements best describes the difference between a decision and a fork? (Choose One)
A. There is no difference; a decision and a fork are interchangeable
B. A decision requires an Else connector, but a fork does not
C. A fork references a Boolean expression; a decision does not
D. A decision references a rule; a fork does not
Answer(s): D

QUESTION: 95
Which standard harness rule is used to display the Take Action options available to the user
responsible for processing the work object assignment? (Choose One)
A. Review
B. Perform
C. Confirm
D. Reopen
Answer(s): B

QUESTION: 96
(True or False) When a Section rule is updated, all Harness rules using that Section rule must also
be opened and saved.
A. True
B. False
Answer(s): B

QUESTION: 97
A Property has been added into a Section rule. The input box for that Property should only be
displayed when a clipboard Property is set to a particular value. On the Conditions tab of the Cell
Properties panel, how should the Visible field be set? (Choose One)
A. If Not Blank
B. If Not Zero
C. Other Condition
D. Always
Answer(s): C

QUESTION: 98
What are three rule types that can be identified by using the Rules Inspector? (Choose Three)
A. Property
B. Data Transform
C. Constraints
D. Section
E. Harness
Answer(s): A, D, E

QUESTION: 99
The term Dynamic Select refers to ____________. (Choose One)
A. the process used during Rule Resolution
B. a PRPC decision rule
C. a UI control that displays a drop-down list with dynamically-generated values
D. the process used to generate an end user’s RuleSet list
Answer(s): C

QUESTION: 100
Which standard Harness rule is displayed as read-only and does not allow user input? (Choose One)
A. Review
B. New
C. Perform
D. Reopen
Answer(s): A

QUESTION: 101
In which two rule types may Control rules be used to change the formatting of the property display
on the user interface? (Choose Two)
A. Flow Action
B. Section
C. Validate
D. Property
Answer(s): B, D

QUESTION: 102
Which two statements are true about Harnesses and Sections? (Choose Two)
A. Each Harness contains the same three standard Section rules
B. Sections may contain multiple Harnesses
C. Harnesses and the Sections they contain need not be built in the same class
D. Harnesses may contain multiple Sections
Answer(s): C, D

QUESTION: 103
According to the application guardrails, what is the ideal approach to using the Auto-Generate
HTML feature? (Choose One)
A. Leave this feature enabled under all circumstances
B. Disable this feature only when no other preferable solution is available
C. Always disable this feature
D. Disable this feature when a page list needs to be displayed in the user interface
Answer(s): B

QUESTION: 104
A user's default portal is defined in the user’s ____________________. (Choose One)
A. Access Group record
B. Application rule
C. Operator ID record
D. Organization record
Answer(s): A

QUESTION: 105
(True or False) Buttons can be configured on Harnesses that run custom Activities.
A. True
B. False
Answer(s): A

QUESTION: 106
(True or False) The Work- class contains many standard Harness and Section rules for initial
customization of the user interface.
A. True
B. False
Answer(s): A

QUESTION: 107
(True or False) A Property rule uses the Default control to determine how it displays. When the
same Property is used in a Section rule, the control is changed to CurrencyAmount. When the
Section is displayed to an end user, it uses the Default control since the initial value cannot be
overridden in a Section rule.
A. True
B. False
Answer(s): B

QUESTION: 108
(True or False) A Section rule can be embedded in another Section rule.
A. True
B. False
Answer(s): A

QUESTION: 109
Which of the following standard Harness rules is typically referenced in the Process tab of the Flow
rule? (Choose One)
A. Review
B. New
C. Perform
D. Reopen
Answer(s): B

QUESTION: 110
(True or false) Portal rules can only be customized by contacting Pegasystems’ Engineering
department.
A. True
B. False
Answer(s): B

QUESTION: 111
Which of the following standard Section rules is contained in the New and Perform harnesses and
displays general work object fields? (Choose One)
A. Core
B. CoreSummary
C. GeneralSummary
D. GeneralHeader
Answer(s): B

QUESTION: 112
Where can you specify a harness? (Choose Three)
A. Process tab of the starter flow rule
B. Parameters tab of the starter flow rule
C. Assignment shape
D. Start shape of a subflow
E. Connector shape
Answer(s): A, C, D

QUESTION: 113
When using a grid, tree, or tree grid repeating layout which of the following edit modes allow a
system architect to call a flow action to present a separate UI to edit a list entry? (Choose Two)
A. Read only
B. Write only
C. Read/Write
D. Inline
E. Modal Dialog
Answer(s): D, E

QUESTION: 114
What types of properties can be used when creating a repeating layout? (Choose Two)
A. Page
B. Page List
C. Value List
D. Value
E. Paragraph
F. Paragraph List
Answer(s): B, C

QUESTION: 115
Which type of layout would you use to minimize developer effort in formatting? (Choose One)
A. Smart Layout
B. Free Form Layout
C. Simple Layout
D. Repeating Layout
Answer(s): A

QUESTION: 116
(True or False) You can convert a layout from a Smart Layout to a Free Form Layout and back to a
Smart Layout by editing the layout's properties panel.
A. True
B. False
Answer(s): B

QUESTION: 117
When a user enters an invalid value into an entry field on a work item, how does PRPC alert the
user? (Choose One)
A. PRPC indicates the field that contains the incorrect data with a red border
B. PRPC displays a red X next to the field in error
C. PRPC presents the user with a pop-up dialog that lists the incorrect data
D. PRPC displays the incorrect value in red-colored text
Answer(s): B

QUESTION: 118
A property named CatalogCode of type Text is added to a section. You want the system to display
the message "Entry must be less than six characters" if the user enters a value that is longer than six
characters. Which one of the following methods is an easy way to achieve this result? (Choose One)
A. Use an activity
B. Use the Behavior field in the Cell Properties for the CatalogCode field
C. Use the Expected Length field in the CatalogCode property rule form
D. Use a validate rule
Answer(s): D

QUESTION: 119
When a validate rule is used to test the values of multiple properties and if a property value fails its
validation criteria, the system continues to test the remaining properties only if ______________.
(Choose One)
A. the validate rule was called using the Page-Validate method in an activity
B. the Continue Validation checkbox is selected in the Validation Conditions for the property that
failed
C. the property is the first one listed in the validate rule
D. the validate rule uses input-qualified validation
Answer(s): B

QUESTION: 120
Which of the following is a good use of the DynamicSelect UI control? (Choose One)
A. To present to the user a short list of allowed choices, and allow the user to enter a value not
displayed in the drop-down list
B. To present to the user a short list of choices defined in a property rule
C. To present to the user a static list of allowed choices
D. To present to the user a list of choices that are generated by an activity, list view, clipboard page,
or report definition
Answer(s): D

QUESTION: 121
DynamicSelect and AutoComplete list items can both be generated from which of the following
sources? (Choose Two)
A. Property
B. Activity
C. List view
D. Report definition
Answer(s): B, D

QUESTION: 122
Select the best option for presenting a large list of dynamic values to a user. (Choose One)
A. Local List
B. AutoComplete
C. DynamicSelect
D. SmartPrompt
Answer(s): B

QUESTION: 123
Other than a Report Definition, which two rules can be used to generate the list used in a Dynamic
Select control? (Choose Two)
A. ListView
B. Property
C. SummaryView
D. Activity
Answer(s): A, D

QUESTION: 124
Which two rules are used to combine icons, sections and buttons for display to the end user?
(Choose Two)
A. Harness
B. Flow Action
C. Section
D. Portal
Answer(s): A, C

QUESTION: 125
Which of the following is not true of a substitute operator? (Choose One)
A. A specific operator can be assigned
B. A specific workbasket can be assigned
C. A specified work group can be assigned
D. It can be determined by a decision tree rule
Answer(s): C

QUESTION: 126
A worklist displays a list of open _______________. (Choose One)
A. assignments
B. work items
C. service levels
D. correspondence
Answer(s): A

QUESTION: 127
An operator opens a work item from a workbasket and immediately closes it. What happens to the
work item? (Choose One)
A. The work item remains in the operator's worklist, where PRPC moved it when the operator
opened it
B. The work item remains in the workbasket for another operator to open
C. The work item was copied to the operator's worklist when it was opened, and the copy was
deleted when it was closed
D. The work item is returned to the workbasket with an increased urgency
Answer(s): A

QUESTION: 128
Urgency is _______________. (Choose One)
A. a numeric property that defines the importance of promptly completing and resolving the
assignment
B. used to determine the prioritized order that assignments appear on worklists
C. a value between 0 - 100
D. all of the above
Answer(s): D

QUESTION: 129
A service level rule is defined with the following settings:
If the default urgency value for the work item is 20, what is the urgency four days after the work
item reaches the assignment? (Choose One)
A. 70
B. 45
C. 60
D. 50
Answer(s): C

QUESTION: 130
A service level rule is defined with the following settings:
After 4 days, what is the urgency of the assignment if the default urgency for the work item is 0
(zero)? (Choose One)
A. 45
B. 65
C. 50
D. 80
Answer(s): B

QUESTION: 131
Review the following rule:
A work object with an urgency value of 10 reaches an assignment with this service level rule
attached. After three hours have passed, the urgency value of the assignment will be ______. (Choose
One)
A. 10
B. 20
C. 23
D. 25
E. 28
Answer(s): C

QUESTION: 132
(True or False) Node level Declarative Pages cannot be shared between requestors.
A. True
B. False
Answer(s): B

QUESTION: 133
Which two statements are true concerning Declarative Pages? (Choose Two)
A. They may be shared between requestors
B. They are automatically generated when a new work object is created
38
C. They can conditionally expire, which allows them to be refreshed
D. They are called sequentially, not declaratively
Answer(s): A, C

QUESTION: 134
(True or False) Node Declarative Pages can only be shared among requestors in a specifically
configured workgroup.
A. True
B. False
Answer(s): B

QUESTION: 135
In order to enable the dynamic calculation feature of a Declare Expressions rule, the "Enable
Expression Calculation" box must be checked in which rule? (Choose One)
A. Harness
B. Portal
C. Declare Expression
D. HTML
Answer(s): A

QUESTION: 136
When a Declarative Page runs on a node, which of the following methods is used to determine the
RuleSet list used to access the load activity? (Choose One)
A. The end user’s RuleSet list
B. The access group configured in the declare pages rule
C. The access group of the user’s Organization
D. The access group of the user’s Division
Answer(s): B

QUESTION: 137
(True or False) Declarative Page names must begin with the prefix “Declare_”.
A. True
B. False
Answer(s): A

QUESTION: 138
When are declared pages created? (Choose One)
A. At system startup
B. When the previous version expires
C. When first accessed
D. When the rule gets created
Answer(s): C

QUESTION: 139
When does PRPC refresh a declared page that has expired? (Choose One)
A. As soon as the declared page expires
B. When PRPC accesses the declared page
C. When defined in the rule form
D. When the user accesses the clipboard
Answer(s): B

QUESTION: 140
Which of the following statements regarding dynamic expression calculation is true? (Choose One)
A. Dynamic expression calculation does not occur when changing a property value
programmatically, such as with an activity
B. Dynamic expression calculation may occur when an input to the target property changes
C. Dynamically calculated values automatically update on a flow action
D. Backward-chaining is not a form of dynamic expression calculation
Answer(s): B

QUESTION: 141
(True or False) Declare Expressions rules can be used in both forward and backward chaining.
40
A. True
B. False
Answer(s): A

QUESTION: 142
When the system automatically checks an internal dependency network for other values that are
affected and performs other processing as determined by the network, the system is performing a
process called __________________. (Choose One)
A. Forward Chaining
B. Declarative Processing
C. Declarative Network Analysis
D. Backward Chaining
Answer(s): A

QUESTION: 143
The properties to be constrained by a Constraints rule may be in ______________. (Choose Two)
A. The Applies To class of the Constraints rule
B. The class of an embedded page
C. Embed-Rule-Constraints
D. Data-Constraints
Answer(s): A, B

QUESTION: 144
In the following example, the Declarative Rules Inspector is enabled, and a "D" appears next to the
value for the Rate property, which is calculated with a Declare Expressions rule named Rate.
What happens when you click the "D"? (Choose One)
A. Nothing. The D is only an indicator, with no action associated with it
B. PRPC opens the Rate property rule
C. PRPC opens the Rate Declare Expressions rule
D. PRPC opens the Dependency Network for Rate
Answer(s): D

QUESTION: 145
Declarative Pages operate within which of the following scopes? (Choose Three)
A. Thread
B. Single
C. Node
D. Server
E. Operator
F. Requestor
Answer(s): A, C, F

QUESTION: 146
What is the primary difference between a Validate rule and a Constraints rule? (Choose One)
A. A Validate rule can reference either Validate rules or Constraints rules, while a Constraints rule
can only reference other Constraints rules
B. Constraints rules are evaluated declaratively, while Validate rules are executed procedurally
C. Constraints rules are evaluated procedurally, while Validate rules are executed declaratively
D. A Validate rule indicates the specific property that fails validation, while a Constraints rule does
not indicate the specific property that fails validation
Answer(s): C

QUESTION: 147
An end user has the following RuleSet list:
When executing an activity, which three RuleSet versions are evaluated? (Choose Three)
A. PolicyAdminGeneral:03-04-08
B. PolicyAdminGeneral:03-03-01
C. PolicyAdmin:02-05-01
D. PolicyAdmin:02-03-12
Answer(s): A, B, D

QUESTION: 148
The primary function of an Application rule is to _________________. (Choose One)
A. Define a set of RuleSets and versions to be used to populate a user's RuleSet list
B. Order RuleSet version prerequisites for developers
C. Identify a user’s primary and secondary access groups
D. Define the class names used in a particular application
Answer(s): A

QUESTION: 149
Which RuleSet versions are accessible to an end user for the RuleSet MyCo if MyCo:07-27 is
included in the runtime RuleSet list? (Choose One)
A. 07-27-01 to 07-27-99
B. 07-01-27
C. 07-01-01 to 07-27-99
D. 07-27-01
Answer(s): C

QUESTION: 150
RuleSets are referenced in _____, which are referenced in _____, which are referenced in _____.
A. Access groups; Application rules; Operator ID records
B. Application rules; Operator ID records; Access groups
C. Application rules; Access groups; Operator ID records
D. Access groups; Operator ID records; Application rules
Answer(s): C

QUESTION: 151
Review the following diagram:
A work object of the class MyCo-PL-Work-PolicyAdmin-NewBusiness is being instantiated. A rule
named SampleRule exists at @baseclass, Work-Cover-, and PolicyAdmin-Work. At runtime, which
version of SampleRule will be located and executed during Rule Resolution? (Choose One)
A. @baseclass.SampleRule
B. Work-Cover-.SampleRule
C. PolicyAdmin-Work.SampleRule
D. the version in the RuleSet that is highest on the RuleSet list
Answer(s): C

QUESTION: 152
Developers are finished developing rules in a particular RuleSet version. What should be done to
prevent these rules from being updated by others? (Choose One)
A. Make the rules unavailable
B. Change the RuleSet name
C. Change the RuleSet version prerequisite
D. Lock the RuleSet version
Answer(s): D

QUESTION: 153
KChapman@MyCo.com needs to check out the NewAccount flow rule in the
MyCoCommercialAccount:03-05-02 RuleSet in order to modify it. When it is checked out, a copy of
the rule is placed in which RuleSet? (Choose One)
A. KChapman@MyCo.com
B. MyCoCommercialAccount:03-05-01
C. MyCoCommercialAccount:03-05-03
D. Pega-ProCom:05-01-10 (or current 5.1 version)
Answer(s): A

QUESTION: 154
(True or False) When circumstancing a rule, a "base" version of the rule to be circumstanced must
already exist.
A. True
B. False
Answer(s): A

QUESTION: 155
(True or False) You can create a circumstanced rule without first creating a base rule instance. In
this case, the rule is only applied if the qualifiers are met.
A. True
B. False
Answer(s): B

QUESTION: 156
(True or False) During rule resolution, a circumstanced rule is executed if the value of the
circumstance property on the rule matches that property's value on the clipboard at runtime.
A. True
B. False
Answer(s): A

QUESTION: 157
To determine which rule instance to use, PRPC prioritizes RuleSets in what order? (Choose One)
A. Personal RuleSet, application RuleSet, production RuleSet, standard PRPC RuleSet
B. Personal RuleSet, production RuleSet, application RuleSet, standard PRPC RuleSet
C. Application RuleSet, production RuleSet, personal RuleSet, standard PRPC RuleSet
D. Production RuleSet, personal RuleSet, application RuleSet, standard PRPC RuleSet
Answer(s): B

QUESTION: 158
(True or False) When an operator edits a rule instance from a locked RuleSet, the rule is saved to
the operator's personal RuleSet.
A. True
B. False
Answer(s): B

QUESTION: 159
Which Clipboard page contains information about the application currently in use? (Choose One)
A. pxRequestor
B. pyWorkPage
C. pxThread
D. pxProcess
Answer(s): C

QUESTION: 160
Which of the following is a step in the rule resolution process? (Choose One)
A. PRPC discards rule instances that are not in an applicable RuleSet
B. PRPC clears the rule cache to free memory
C. PRPC adds rules instances with availabilty set to "Yes" or "Final" to the cache
D. PRPC ranks rule instances according to their availability
Answer(s): A

QUESTION: 161
Which rule availability setting allows you to mask a rule in a child class and fall back to the same
rule in a parent class? (Choose One)
A. Withdrawn
B. Blocked
C. Hidden
D. Skipped
Answer(s): A

QUESTION: 162
An existing, released application applies a rule instance to a specific work type. You wish to apply
this rule to a less-specialized class in the next release of the application. Select the best method to
accomplish this task. (Choose One)
A. Unlock any RuleSet version that contains the rule instance, and delete each instance applied to
the work type. Then, create a new instance applied to the less-specific class
B. Create two new instances of the rulE. one applied to the work type, with availability set to
Blocked, and the other applied to the less-specific class with availability set to Yes
C. Create two new instances of the rulE. one applied to the work type and saved to a RuleSet that
end-users cannot access, and the other applied to the less-specific class and saved to a RuleSet that
end users can access
D. Create two new instances of the rulE. one applied to the work type, with availability set to
Withdrawn, and the other applied to the less-specific class with availability set to Yes
E. Use a decision table or decision tree to call the less-specialized instance when the user runs the
most-recent version of the application
Answer(s): D

QUESTION: 163
An application contains two instances of a section rule named ReviewOrderInfo, applied to different
classes. One instance of ReviewOrderInfo is saved in a production RuleSet, and the other instance is
saved in an application RuleSet. When a user runs the application, which instance of the
ReviewOrderInfo section does PRPC use? (Choose One)
A. The instance in the production RuleSet
B. The instance in the application RuleSet
C. The answer cannot be determined from the information provided
Answer(s): C

QUESTION: 164
Which of the following factors impacts whether an operator can use a particular rule instance when
running an application? (Choose Three)
A. The RuleSet version that contains the rule instance
B. Applying the rule instance to a parent class
C. The application version listed on the operator’s access group
D. Changing the availability of the rule instance from Yes to Final
E. Circumstancing the rule instance
F. Saving the rule instance in a prerequisite RuleSet
Answer(s): A, C, E

QUESTION: 165
Select two statements that are true of Atomic Use Cases. (Choose Two)
A. They are defined for each work type and are small and granular
B. They are owned by multiple actors
47
C. They change ownership several times during processing
D. They correspond to flow actions, flows, screen flows, harnesses, or activities
Answer(s): A, D

QUESTION: 166
Application guardrails recommend that developers ____. (Choose Three)
A. Create Java steps in Activities
B. Adopt an iterative approach
C. Calculate and edit procedurally
D. Design intent-driven processes
E. Build for change
Answer(s): B, D, E

QUESTION: 167
When following PRPC best practices, which artifact is completed prior to running the Application
Accelerator? (Choose One)
A. Enterprise Data Model
B. Application Profile
C. Class Structure Diagram
D. User Interface Design Review
Answer(s): B

QUESTION: 168
What does “Build For Change®” mean? (Choose One)
A. Build applications without change control, in order to complete projects more quickly
B. Launch applications as soon as possible so that performance testing can be done in Production
C. Build applications that are more easily adaptable to inevitable business change
D. Business architects initially build PRPC applications and system architects subsequently change
them
Answer(s): C

QUESTION: 169
Before running the Application Profile wizard, one should first gather information about which four
of the following key design elements? (Choose Four)
A. Actors
B. Work Types
C. Interfaces
D. Classes and Inheritance
E. Correspondence
Answer(s): A, B, C, E

QUESTION: 170
Which of the following is not a valid Process Discovery Map shape? (Choose One)
A. Decision step
B. Human-based step
C. Sub process
D. Integration
Answer(s): A

QUESTION: 171
During which part of the DCO process does draft UI generation occur? (Choose One)
A. Construction
B. Inception
C. Initiation
D. Elaboration
Answer(s): D

QUESTION: 172
Which of the following rules should you create or edit when you develop a draft user interface?
(Choose Two)
A. Section
B. Property
C. Flow Action
D. Paragraph
E. Layout
49
Answer(s): A, C

QUESTION: 173
Which DCO tool would be used by a business analyst or business architect to gather and sequence
project use cases and requirements for a reusable application? (Choose One)
A. Application Accelerator
B. Application Documentation Wizard
C. Application Express
D. Application Profiler
E. Project Sizing tool
Answer(s): D

QUESTION: 174
Which DCO tool would be used by a Lead System Architect to create a reusable enterprise
application based on collected use cases and requirements? (Choose One)
A. Project Sizing tool
B. Application Documentation Wizard
C. Application Profiler
D. Application Accelerator
E. Application Express
Answer(s): D

QUESTION: 175
Why do Pegasystems best practices suggest limiting flow rules to 15 shapes (excluding
Connectors)? (Choose One)
A. Flows with too many shapes can introduce complex, difficult-to-debug processes in an
application
B. Flows with more than 15 shapes cannot be printed
C. Flows with more than 15 shapes cannot be updated
D. More than 15 shapes in one flow rule may result in performance issues
Answer(s): A

QUESTION: 176
(True or False) The Application Accelerator can be utilized without first creating an Application
Profile.
A. True
B. False
Answer(s): A

QUESTION: 177
Which statement is true about work item instances? (Choose One)
A. Some work items do not have work item IDs
B. All work items belong to covers
C. A work item may be instantiated from an abstract class
D. Every work item is an instance of a concrete class
Answer(s): D

QUESTION: 178
Select three characteristics of a concrete class from the following list. (Choose Three)
A. Class name must end in a '-'
B. It may belong to a class group
C. It may be a class group
D. It must inherit from an abstract class
E. It can have instances
Answer(s): B, C, E

QUESTION: 179
Review the following diagram:
What is the directed parent of the class MyCo-HR-TimeOff-LeaveRequest? (Choose One)
A. Work-
B. MyCo-
C. MyCo-HR-TimeOff
D. Work-Object51
Answer(s): D

QUESTION: 180
A class rule _____. (Choose One)
A. must specify both directed and pattern inheritance
B. must always specify pattern inheritance
C. must always specify directed inheritance
D. need not specify directed nor pattern inheritance
Answer(s): C

QUESTION: 181
Select two statements from the following list which are true concerning work pools. (Choose Two)
A. They directly correspond to class groups
B. A user may have access to no more than ten work pools
C. A user's default work pool is established in the user's access group
D. They are created by Work Pool rules
Answer(s): A, C

QUESTION: 182
Which statement is true about pattern inheritance? (Choose One)
A. It only applies to work classes
B. It causes a class to inherit rules from parent classes, matching its prefix to the parent class name
C. It is executed after directed inheritance
D. It causes a class to inherit rules from a class not related to its parent
Answer(s): B

QUESTION: 183
Class design best practices dictate that a class group should directly or indirectly inherit from which
class? (Choose One)
A. Work-Object-
B. @baseclass
C. Work52
D. Work-Cover
E. Work-Folder-
Answer(s): C

QUESTION: 184
Review the following diagram:
A work object of class MyCo-HR-TimeOff-SpecialLeaveRequest references an activity called
GetBalance. If the activity is not found in this class, and pattern inheritance is enabled in this class,
which class is evaluated next? (Choose One)
A. MyCo-HR-TimeOff-LeaveRequest
B. Work-Object-
C. MyCo-HR-TimeOff
D. @baseclass
Answer(s): C
QUESTION: 185
(True or False) Every class, except @baseclass, must define a directed inheritance path.
A. True
B. False
Answer(s): A

QUESTION: 186
On the Class form, all concrete classes fall into which three of the following categories? (Choose
Three)
A. This class is a class group
B. This class belongs to a class group
C. This class is a work class
D. This class does not belong to a class group.
Answer(s): A, B, D

QUESTION: 187
The Application Explorer displays which rules? (Choose One)
A. All of the rules in PRPC
B. Rules in a work pool/class group and its associated work classes
C. Only rules you have worked on since logging on
D. Only rules you have worked on in the last 7 days
Answer(s): B

QUESTION: 188
The class layer that extends a reusable class structure for a specific implementation is called which
of the following? (Choose One)
A. Framework layer
B. Work layer
C. Implementation layer
D. Top layer
Answer(s): C

QUESTION: 189
The following diagram is an example of which tool? (Choose One)
A. Application Explorer
B. Class Inheritance Diagram
C. Class Structure Viewer
D. Application Profile Wizard
Answer(s): B

QUESTION: 190
Class design best practices dictate that abstract class names _______________. (Choose One)
A. should not end with a hyphen
B. should end with an asterisk
C. have no particular naming convention
D. should end with a hyphen
Answer(s): D
54

QUESTION: 191
The class layer that creates a reusable class structure that can be extended for specific
implementations is called which of the following? (Choose One)
A. Framework layer
B. Work layer
C. Implementation layer
D. Top layer
Answer(s): A

QUESTION: 192
When creating an application with both implementation and framework classes, which class would
be the directed parent of a work class in the implementation layer? (Choose One)
A. The corresponding work class in the framework layer
B. The class group in the framework layer
C. Work-
D. The class group in the inheritance layer
Answer(s): A

QUESTION: 193
Which of the following is not true of a data class? (Choose One)
A. It must inherit, either directly or indirectly, from the Data- class
B. It must belong to a class group
C. It should correspond to a distinct entity in the data model
D. It can inherit rules other than properties
Answer(s): B

QUESTION: 194
Which of the following are true about classes in PRPC? (Choose Two)
A. Classes represent the applicability of rules
B. Rules can only be inherited from a class designated as a prerequisite class
C. Classes can inherit rules from other classes
D. Classes can be versioned using a set of three two-digit numbers, such as 01-05-17
55
Answer(s): A, C

QUESTION: 195
Given the following inheritance diagram, which class MUST be a class group? (Choose One)
A. GLBX-FW-OnboardingFW-Work-EquipmentRequest
B. GLBX-FW-OnboardingFWC.
GLBX-FWD.
GLBX-FW-OnboardingFW-Work
E. There is no class group
Answer(s): D

QUESTION: 196
Given the following inheritance diagram, what is the full inheritance path for the GLBX-FWOnboardingFW-
class, as determined by rule resolution? (Choose One)
A. GLBX-FW-OnboardingFW-, GLBX-FW-, GLBX-, Work-, @baseclass
B. GLBX-FW-OnboardingFW-, GLBX-FW-, GLBX-, @baseclass, Work-
C. GLBX-FW-OnboardingFW-, GLBX-FW- , GLBX-, Work-Object-, Work-, @baseclass
D. GLBX-FW-OnboardingFW-, Work-, @baseclass
Answer(s): A

QUESTION: 197
From the following choices, select three statements that are true about a framework layer. (Choose
Three)
A. The framework layer is a reusable application that can be used as the basis for a specific
implementation
B. A framework layer may be built upon another framework layer
C. A framework layer can support only one implementation layer
D. Rules applied to a class in the framework layer can be called from the implementation layer
E. During rule resolution, PRPC assembles one rule cache for the framework layer, and another rule
cache for the implementation layer
F. The framework layer may only consist of abstract classes
Answer(s): A, B, D
56

QUESTION: 198
Which of the following must be true to add a chart to a report? (Choose One)
A. The report must include at least one column of summarized data
B. The report cannot use a SQL function to obtain data to display in the chart
C. The report must contain a filter
D. The report cannot contain a filter
Answer(s): A

QUESTION: 199
Which of the following statements about reporting in PRPC are true? (Choose Two)
A. You can add charts to list-type reports convey the report's meaning more clearly
B. Managers can create their own reports
C. You have to log in to PRPC to see report results
D. You can share your reports with colleagues in PRPC
Answer(s): B, D

QUESTION: 200
Which of the following statements are true about the Report Browser? (Choose Two)
A. The Report Browser is a tool for managers. System architects can only work on reports by editing
their underlying Report Definition rule in the Designer Studio
B. You cannot create a report in the Report Browser without first creating a personal category to
put it in
C. Shortcuts provide a quick, high-level view of a report's data
D. You can add another schedule to an already-scheduled report
E. If you schedule a report, you must configure the email message that the report uses to deliver
information to its subscribers
Answer(s): B, E

QUESTION: 201
(True or False) Process Commander provides a set of functions to use in the Function Builder when
you create a report. If you cannot find a function that provides the information your report needs,
you can create a custom function and use that.
57
A. True
B. False
Answer(s): A

QUESTION: 202
Which of the following can you perform when editing a Report Definition rule that you cannot do in
either the Report Browser or Report Viewer? (Choose Three)
A. Prevent others from editing the report in the Report Viewer
B. Prevent the report from appearing in the Report Browser
C. Add custom commands to the right-click (context) menu
D. Add sub-reports to filter the data the report displays
E. Share the report with colleagues using the Report Browser
F. Schedule the report to run at regular intervals
Answer(s): A, B, D

QUESTION: 203
In what ways can an end user add, remove, or update filters on a report? (Choose Three)
A. Right-click on a row of data and select "Edit Filter Conditions..."
B. Right-click on a column heading and select "Advanced Filtering"
C. Right-click on any element in a chart to display the Filter Wizard
D. Click the Advanced Filtering icon in the command ribbon
E. Click any element in the list of filters that appears in the report header
F. Click the report title and select "Edit Filter Conditions..." from the menu
Answer(s): B, D, E

QUESTION: 204
Other than an activity, which rule type can be used to populate a declare page? (Choose One)
A. Data Transform
B. Report Definition
C. Decision Table
D. Database
E. All of the above can be used to populate a declare page
Answer(s): B
58

QUESTION: 205
When creating a list-type report, which attribute can we NOT specify about the data returned by the
report? (Choose One)
A. The format of the data
B. The sort order of the data
C. Whether the data appears on a chart
D. Whether the data should appear in the report or not
Answer(s): C

QUESTION: 206
A manager can create a report in which of the following categories? (Choose One)
A. Only a standard category
B. Only a shared category
C. Only a personal category
D. A shared category or a personal category
E. A standard category or a personal category
F. A standard category, a shared category, or a personal category
Answer(s): D

QUESTION: 207
Which of the following can be used to define a column in a report? (Choose Two)
A. Another report
B. A SQL function
C. A Java function
D. An exposed property
E. A class join
Answer(s): B, D

QUESTION: 208
Which of the following definitions is incorrectly matched with one of the 6R's of PRPC? (Choose
One)
59
A. ResolvinG. Complete the work, then update downstream systems promptly through automated
process and automated support of users
B. ReceivinG. Accept and capture the essential data describing work from multiple sources
C. ReportinG. Communicate status, requests for information, and progress to the work originator
and to other interested people involved in the work
D. ResearchinG. Support analysis and decision-making by providing access to external systems and
databases
Answer(s): C

QUESTION: 209
(True or False) A business process describes and controls how business is conducted.
A. True
B. False
Answer(s): A

QUESTION: 210
The elements that make up a Business Process Management application include _________. (Choose
Three)
A. process
B. user interface
C. forms
D. logic and decisions
E. analyzing
F. routing
Answer(s): A, B, D

QUESTION: 211
Which of the following are true statements regarding a work type? (Choose Three)
A. A work type represents a fundamental unit of work to be processed and resolved
B. A work type is a template used to create a work item
C. A work type can be assigned to a user
D. A work type defines the process used to complete, or resolve, work
E. A work type has a unique status
60
Answer(s): A, B, D

QUESTION: 212
By default, which types of information are automatically added to the history of a work item?
(Choose Four)
A. Changes to work status
B. Audit notes
C. Changes to property values
D. Assignment instructions
E. The work type used to create the work item
F. The user who created the work item
Answer(s): A, B, D, F

QUESTION: 213
What is the key difference between BPM application development and traditional application
development? (Choose One)
A. A BPM application is process-centric (all elements of the application depend upon the process)
B. In a BPM application, elements of the application – such as UI, logic, and data – cannot be
modular
C. A traditional application cannot be used in an N-tier environment
D. A traditional application allows for direct execution of the business process, while a BPM
application does not
Answer(s): A

PegaCSA v6.2 Dumps

Certified System Architect Exam (CSA) v6.2 Questions with answers

WebContainer/Servlet Engine problems

Steps to help resolve Common WebContainer/Servlet Engine problems

1. My WebApplication is not started on a server startup
Verify server logs for any error messages during web application initialization.
If the server fails to load the deployment descriptor, verify that the contents ofweb.xml do not containany syntax problems.
If the server log contains any exceptions during servlet initialization, address those problems or turn off load-on-
2. startup for failing servlets.
Static content in WebApplication cannot be served:
Make sure that the URL in the request corresponds to a static resource in the web application.
Verify that the "File Serving" feature is enabled in IBM Extensions. You can verify this by opening thefailing war file in AAT/ASTK/RAD. You can also look for the fileServingEnabled property in ibm-web-ext.xmi file.
3. Users get an HTTP 404 error, or the "VirtualHost/WebGroup Not Found" error is written in the log:
Make sure that the requested URL corresponds to a resource in the web application. This resource canbe a servlet defined in web.xml or a file in the war file.
Verify that the requested URL can be mapped to a Virtual Host alias that is mapped for the failing webapplication. You can verify this by opening the web application details in the administrative console.
If you have a multiple server configuration with multiple virtual hosts, make sure that the plug-in is directing the failing request to the correct application server. Conflicting entries in virtual host aliases may result in sending requests to the wrong application server or mapping to the wrong web application. You should always specify unique entries in host aliases for all virtual hosts present in a particular cell.
4. Users get an HTTP 500 error:
Verify the server logs for detailed messages about the failure and address them.
If the exception is related to the application, it should be addressed by application developers.
If the exception does not provide detailed information, but only contains ServletException, then verify FFDC logs that were created at the time of the exception for additional clues about failure.

Transaction Faliour

Issue:Transaction files may become locked and WebSphere® Application Server may be in a state where nodes need to manually synchronized. If WebSphere Application Server is not responding in a logical manner, try carrying out these steps

Procedure

1.     Backup all configuration files on each node by running the backupConfig command.

2.     Stop the node agents on each node.

3.     Stop all servers.

4.     Stop the Deployment Manager.

5.     Manually synchronize the configurations, even if it says the nodes are fully synchronized, by copying the file system stgw_profile_root/config directory from the Deployment Manager to the config directory on each cluster member, including the proxy server node.

6.     Delete all tranlog lock files from the file system. On each node, delete the contents of stgw_profile_root/tranlog.

7.     Delete files in the temp and wstemp directories. On each node, delete the contents of: stgw_profile_root/temp, stgw_profile_root/wstemp, and stgw_profile_root/config/temp.

8.     Reboot each node.

9.     Start the cluster.

1.- Prepare linux enviroment
2.- Install Agent Installer 1.7 (IBM IM) 
3.- Install WebSphere Application Server 8.5.5 ND binaries
4.- Install IHS 8.5
5.- Start IHS 8.5
6.- Configure WAS ND 8.5.5
7.- Install Plugin
8.- Configure Plugin
9.- Configure SSL

1.- Prepare linux enviroment

# yum install compat-libstdc++-296.i686 compat-libstdc++-33.i686
# yum install compat-libstdc++-33.x86_64
# yum install gtk2.i686 libXtst.i686

NOTE: My last install was over RHEL 6.4 and I use the IM 1.7 64 bits, I did not need the enviroment prepartation because the IM runs great!!! but you will need to run the WebSphere Customization Toolbox (WPT) you will need to install 32 bits libraries.
Maybe you need to disble SELinux too by temporarily switch off enforcement, if that is your case just run this:

# echo 0 >/selinux/enforce

2.- Install Agent Installer 1.7 (IBM IM)

For this step you will need the file agent.installer.linux.gtk.x86_64_1.7.1000.20131119_2219.zip 

# unzip agent.installer.linux.gtk.x86_64_1.7.1000.20131119_2219.zip



all will be unzipped here, see next picture, then you only must run the installer

# ./install

COMMON PROBLEM OCCUR IN IBM MQ

Some of the common problems that occur in this environment are:

1.MQ channel stopped
2.Queue full
3.Messages in the dead-letter queue
4.Messages in a queue and no open processes
5.Isolating MQ problems between IBM z/OS and distributed systems.
MQ channel stopped
An MQ “Channel Stopped” error is easy to detect either by activating the supplied situation (alert) based on an MQ event or by querying the channel status attribute. The “Channel Stopped” event alerts only when the return code indicates that the channel has stopped in error.
This event provides an easy, low-overhead way to alert you on this situation. By using the channel status attribute, the alert is enhanced by checking the depth of the XmitQ associated with the channel and then checking the status of the channel only when there are messages in the XmitQ. This action reduces the need to check every channel; you only check the channels that are truly problematic
So, for channel down problems you can have two basic alerts. One is based on the MQ event of channel stop and the return code indicating an error. The other monitors for messages in the XmitQ and the associated channel that is not running.
Queue full
On the issue of a “Queue Full” event, again there are two ways to alert on this issue. The first is to use the Queue Full MQ event, which is a relatively easy way to detect this issue. However, to truly monitor the status of the queue depth, you must be able to monitor the actual depth of the queue. MQ events alert you when a queue depth crosses the high-depth threshold and when it is full, but these events are not resolved until the queue depth drops below the queue low threshold. So, a queue could go full and then as the problem is being rectified (maybe by starting the process to read from that queue) the queue could be in a steady state of half full, with messages going on and off the queue, without an event being generated to tell us that the queue is no longer full. You should therefore set up another situation that actually monitors the depth of the queue. Then when the first message comes off the queue that alert would be automatically closed, indicating that the queue is no longer full.
Messages in the dead-letter queue
Most, if not all, queue managers have a designated dead-letter queue (DLQ). The DLQ prevents MQ from bringing a channel down because of an undeliverable message. However, you must have a situation in place to alert you to when any messages arrive on the DLQ. One of the many enhanced metrics in OMEGAMON XE for Messaging is the translation of the reason code for the message being put on the DLQ. This identifies the root cause and reduces the mean time to repair (MTTR) of the problem. On resolution of the problem, use OMEGAMON XE for Messaging to delete or forward the message back to the original destination or some other queue.
Messages in a queue and no open processes
If there are messages in a queue and no processes have the queue open for input or output, it is probably at least worth a warning alert. This situation can be a problem unless the queue is expected to hold messages for some future processing window. It is simple enough to set up alerts in OMEGAMON XE for Messaging based on these requirements. The alert can be further refined to not trigger within certain expected time frames when you expect that the queue will not be opened.
Isolating MQ problems between IBM z/OS and distributed systems
One of the key reasons that most companies make the decision to use IBM MQ is the ability to easily connect applications across disparate systems with a common application programming interface (API). However, these same companies continue to manage MQ as separate entities in the distributed and z/OS environments. To correctly diagnose MQ issues, you must be able to manage MQ with a common set of tools across all architectures. OMEGAMON XE for Messaging normalizes MQ metrics across platforms so that one person or team can easily manage MQ from a single vantage point. You can manage channels, queues or other objects in the same way, wherever they exist, which results in a more effective level-one analysis. It no longer requires two or more distinct teams to perform level-one diagnostics and management of the MQ environment. A platform specialist is required only for underlying platform-specific issues.